This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to ATO Level 2
• The DoD and USAF define terrorism as the ____ use or threat of unlawful violence to instill fear.
• The DoD and USAF defines terrorism as the intention to coerce or intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological.
• Which position is assigned the task of actually writing an AT plan?
o Installation or self-supported facility ATO
• Deploying units having _______or more personnel assigned or under the operational control of a designated commander, will have a Level II-certified ATO assigned.
• Who will determine the appropriate FPCON level?
o Commander assigned AT responsibility
• Which document provides detailed information to assist in managing AT elements/activities?
o DoD O-2000.12-H
• Which of the following is NOT an element of the Risk Management process?
o Asset assessment
• The AT risk management process and procedures shall be reviewed at least annually. An AT program review, higher headquarters assessment, or JSIVA visit satisfies this annual requirement. What is the normal frequency for higher headquarters assessments?
o Every third year
• Which of the following plans contain command-specific guidance for the establishment of an antiterrorism program and the implementation of antiterrorism standards?
o Antiterrorism Plan
Complete the sentence below by clicking on the correct item in the list.
• AT planning is critical to deterrence, detection, defense, and ____________.
o Response to terrorist incidents
• Family members that are ________ years or older traveling beyond CONUS on official business (i.e. on an accompanied PCS move), shall receive Level I AT Awareness training as part of their pre-departure requirements.
• Deploying units having ________ personnel assigned or under the operational control of a designated commander, will have a Level II-certified ATO assigned.
o 300 or more
• Which level of AT training is designed to prepare ATOs to manage AT programs, advise the commander on all AT issues, and qualify individuals to administer AT Awareness Training?
o Level II
• Which level of AT training provides senior military and civilian executive leadership with the requisite knowledge to enable development of AT Program policies and facilitate oversight of all aspects of AT Programs at the operational and strategic levels?
o Level IV
• Who is the AF Program Element Monitor (PEM) for the AF AT program?
• Which funding source is the PRIMARY means for combatant commanders to react to unforeseen requirements from changes in a terrorist threat, threat levels, antiterrorism doctrine and standards, as well as unanticipated requirements identified as a result of vulnerability assessments, tactical operations, and exercising AT plans?
o Combatant Commander’s Initiative Fund (CCIF)
• The systematic assessment of the AT program against standards prescribed by DoD Instruction 200.16 requires a comprehensive AT program review be conducted to evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the program. During this AT program review which of the following areas must be evaluated?
o Risk Management
o AT Planning
o Training and Exercise
• In accordance with Training and Exercise standards, AT exercise documentation must be maintained for no less than _____ to ensure incorporation of lessons learned.
o 2 years
• Which of the following correctly defines Lessons Learned(L2)?
o Lessons learned (L2) An insight gained that improves military operations or activities at the strategic, operational, or tactical level, and results in long-term, internalized change to an individual, group of individuals, or an organization.
• Select the all the fundamental functions of the AF Lessons Learned.
• The Joint Lessons Learned Repository (JLLR) is a common searchable database in which selected L2 observations are deposited and is viewable by all active duty personnel.
• Who develops and provides AOR specific training and provide in-transit forces with threat information?
o Geographic Combatant Commander (GCC)
• ____________ includes focused information on potential terrorist threats (e.g., tailored production and analysis) and guidance on the development of AT protection risk mitigation measures to aid in the development of tailored AT planning.
o AOR-Specific Training for DoD Personnel and In-transit Forces
• ___________ is a system of countermeasures protecting assets and includes the aggressor tactics and the associated weapons, explosives, tools, and agents.
o UFC 4-020-01
• The DBT does NOT provide a rational basis for making and justifying potentially expensive decisions, designing the security system, and evaluating the adequacy of the security system.
• Antiterrorism is a/an ___________ responsibility and must be thoroughly integrated into every unit attached to the installation, to include tenants, sister services, and attached agencies.
o Installation Commander’s
• Within the normal structured organizational relationship on an installation, who is directly subordinate to the Installation Commander with responsibility for program oversight of the installation’s Antiterrorism Program?
o Installation ATO
• The Primary focus of the Crisis Action Team is __________.
o Mission Continuation
• Critical assets may also be private assets, that if lost would seriously disrupt DoD operations.
• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 5 requires a CA to identify, classify, and prioritize mission-essential assets, resources, and personnel critical to DoD mission success.
• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 5 requires Cas be updated at least every two years to determine the degree of asset criticality.
• CAs are also conducted on __________ assets such as high population facilities and mass gathering activities.
o Non-mission Essential
• CAs shall provide the basis for identifying those assets that require specific protective <1> _______ and <2> _______ for resources allocation when developing and updating the AT plan.
• Some of the goals for conducting a CA are:
o Identify the installation’s/unit’s key assets
o Determine if critical functions can be duplicated under various attack scenarios
o Determine the time required to replace key assets or infrastructures if temporarily or permanently lost
o Determine the priority for responses to key assets, functions, and infrastructures in the event of fire, multiple bombings, or other terrorist acts.
• In the joint environment, the__________ is responsible for base force protection and security operations.
o Joint Forward Operating Base Commander
• ______________ helps to overcome the challenges created when different units from different commands with different missions are assigned to support the Joint Forward Operating Base’s force protection mission.
o Unity of command
• The purpose of the CA process is to identify and prioritize all assets on an installation. Assets include personnel, equipment, stockpiles, buildings, recreation areas, or transportation systems.
• The purpose of a CA matrix is to determine the vulnerability of security operations on an installation.
• The purpose of the _________ is to develop and refine AT program guidance, policy, and standards, act upon recommendations of the ATWG and TWG and determine resource allocation priorities to mitigate or eliminate terrorism-related vulnerabilities?
o Antiterrorism Executive Council (ATEC)
• Which group is NOT required to have a charter?
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)
• Which Antiterrorism group’s charter should be developed to describe member responsibilities, minimum functional and SME participation?
o Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG)
• The Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander chairs the _________.
o Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG)
• No specific threat information equals an absence of threat.
• Which Antiterrorism group’s membership includes: the ATO, commander (or a designated rep), members of the staff, tenant unit representatives, appropriate representation from direct-hire, contractor, local, State, Federal, and host-nation law enforcement agencies and the intelligence community?
o Threat Working Group (TWG)
• Which Antiterrorism group meets at least semi-annually and acts upon recommendations of the Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG) and Threat Working Group (TWG)?
o Antiterrorism Executive Council (ATEC)
• IAW DoD Directive 2000.12, a <1> asset is any facility, equipment, service, or resource considered essential to DoD Operations in peace, crisis, and war; warranting measures and precautions to ensure its continued efficient operation, protection from disruption, degradation or destruction, and its timely restoration.
• The TA matrix establishes a range of specific weapons and tactics.
• From the list below, select all that are individual components of the TA matrix.
o Threat Priority
o Delivery Method
• From the list below, select the three that are hazard categories.
• Select the terrorist threat information source(s) that fall under the Department of Defense. Select all that apply.
o Combatant Commands
o Intelligence Center/J2
o DIA – JITF-CT
• Terrorist threat information sources can include open source materials such as the Internet, books and studies, newspapers and periodicals.
• _____________is the product resulting from the collection, processing, integration, analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of available information concerning foreign countries or areas (Joint Pub 3-07.2)
• ______________is information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted by or on behalf foreign governments or elements thereof, foreign organizations, or foreign persons, or international terrorist activities (Joint Pub 3-07.2)
o Counterintelligence (CI)
• Collectively, the threat analysis, intelligence, and counterintelligence provides priority information requirements to identify potential terrorist targets based on existing knowledge of an organization.
• The small size of terrorist groups, their mobility, and training in CI and security measures are some of the factors that complicate <1>__________ and <2>_________ collection and operations.
• IAW DoD Instruction 2000.16, a _________ Assessment, addresses the effect of temporary or permanent loss of key assets or infrastructures on the installation or a unit’s ability to perform its mission.
• A Criticality Assessment also examines the cost of recovery and constitution including time, funds, capability, and infrastructure support.
• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 16 requires identification to the responsible military department those personnel, including designated family members, requiring formal high-risk personnel training before assignment.
• DoD Instruction 2000.16 and AFI 10-245, Standard 16 requires that a personnel security vulnerability assessment (PSVA) be completed for each person who is an O-6 or above.
• The _______ is used to identify the terrorist threats posed to DoD assets and/or the threats that could be encountered in executing a mission.
o Threat Assessment
• The __________leverages information and intelligence to support the timely identification of indicators and warnings of emerging localized threats. This group also serves as the primary information source directly supporting the Defense Force Commander (DFC) in making immediate proactive decisions for integrated defense planning.
o (Answer not given as a solution: Threat Information Fusion Cell (TIFC)
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)???
• The ___________ assures that the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) considers the most current data regarding the threat and operating environments.
o Threat Information Fusion Cell (TIFC)
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)???
• __________ is a command and control facility established by the Joint Forward Operating Base (JFOB) commander to serve as the focal point for base defense, force protection and security operations.
o Base Defense Operations Center
• Essential members of the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) include representatives from all of the units below EXCEPT ______.
• How many Emergency Support Functions are located in the Emergency Operations Center:
• The_________ provides the commander with a tool to assess the potential vulnerabilities of an installation, unit, exercise, port, ship, residence, facility, or other site.
o Vulnerability Assessment
• Vulnerability fall into which three of the following categories?
• Risk management is defined as the process of selecting and implementing countermeasures to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.
• Risk = Criticality x Threat x Vulnerability
• Drag and drop each of the following steps in the Risk Management Process to put them in their correct order with the first step on the op and the last on the bottom.
o Assess Assets
o Assess Threats
o Assess Vulnerabilities
o Assess Risks
• It is important to note that the asset RA table is meant to be an exact science. It is the only method of quantifying risk.
• Risk avoidance integrates the process of assessing the threat, the vulnerabilities, and the value of the asset to the owner. It also weighs the risk of compromise/loss against the cost of security practices.
• Who normally has authority to determine acceptable risk?
o Installation Commander
• Site specific FPCON measures are designed for unique requirements of an installation or mission. Each functional commander should develop and it can be base-wide or facility specific.
• Threat levels define the degree of threat; FPCONs define security measures to protect against that threat.
• The <1> ________ system provides a framework of prescribed <2> _________ and cycles necessary for reestablishing the confidence level and security information systems for the commander and thereby supporting the entire Global Information Grid.
• The INFOCON system applies to both the NIPR and SIPR NETs.
• Which two of the following categories are used for Vulnerabilities?
• ______ options must be identified in order to develop controls, make decisions, implement controls, supervise, and review.
• Barrier plans establish access/entry control points in contingencies.
• Barrier plans are used to support installation AT plans in all of the following examples, EXCEPT?
o Installation beautification
• A key element of a Barrier Plan should identify owners/users tasked with erecting barriers and _______.
o Specified Time Periods
• As part of an effective evacuation plan, ensure that all maps are marked with exits, are posted throughout each facility, and that all personnel knows the location of the rally point.
• As part of your emergency evacuation plan, always post evacuation rally points on maps. It allows assigned personnel to quickly locate their rally point during an emergency.
• Click on the correct AFI that is used to assist with the planning of installation vehicle inspection areas.
o AFI 10-2401
• Which of the following are mitigation assistance groups?
o Rapid Equipping Force
o Technical Support Working Group
o Physical Security Equipment Action Group
• Antiterrorism construction standards were developed to identify appropriate and enforceable measures to eliminate further need for countermeasures for possible terrorist attacks.
• Building system design consists of which of the following considerations.
o Space Planning
• Standard 6 – Terrorism VA, requires that the assessment be conducted and updated at least _________ or more frequently if the terrorist threat assessment or mission requirements dictate.
• Upon completion of a Vulnerability Assessment, Standard 6 requires that the CVAMP database be populated with the results within _______ days.
• When conducting a VA, you must step outside of your usual role and think like a ____________.
• One of the HHQ team objectives is to assist the _______ Commander in meeting the AT and FP responsibilities.
• The Core VA Management Program (CVAMP) is an automated and web-based means of managing a command’s vulnerabilities and associated funding requirements.
• __________ is covered in the CARVER method and should be used as a criterion for vulnerability.
• MSHARPP focuses mainly on the threat to the situations, activities, capabilities, and resources on an installation that are vulnerable to a terrorist attack.
• When determining assets and threats, the same considerations should be given to the systems approach in the _________ environment as when in the cantonment area.
• Security resources and measures are applied to _______ and to deter, detect, defend, and defeat the threat.
o Mitigate risks
• Barrier systems are considered _________ if they require action by personnel or equipment to permit entry.
• Barrier systems are considered _________ if their effectiveness relies on their bulk or mass and they have no moving parts.
• Barrier systems are considered _________ if they are permanently installed or if heavy equipment is required to move or dismantle the barriers.
• Barrier systems are considered ________ if they can be transferred from place to place.
• During contingency operations, key facilities or missions should be considered for ________ and visual assessment.
o Electronic Detection
• The one method of reducing risk that is controllable is reducing the ____________.
• An action taken or a physical entity used to reduce or eliminate one or more vulnerability, threat, or impact is a _________.
• The three categories of observations are concern, positive, and neutral.
• An option is an action that can be taken or equipment that can be applied to reduce or eliminate one or more __________.
• Servicing ________ detachments will provide a threat assessment for any to the supported installation.
o Air Force Office of Special Investigations
• Deploying commanders shall implement appropriate ___________ to reduce risk and vulnerability before and after deployment.
o Antiterrorism measures
• Activities involving hazardous, toxic, and/or explosive materials that should be isolated from other activities fall under which type of consideration.
o Industrial Safety and Hygiene
• Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAMs) are FPCON measures selected from higher measures which are randomly implemented during lower FPCONs.
• ____________ will make a decision on how best to employ given resources and force protection measure to deter, mitigate, or prepare for a terrorist incident.
o Installation Commander
• Which of the following titles is “a chairman of the Joint Chief’s of Staff approved program standardizing the Department’s identification, recommended preventive actions, and responses to terrorist threats against U.S. personnel and facilities. The system is the primary means for a commander to apply an operational decision on how to protect against terrorism.
o Force Protection Conditions (FPCON)
• Commanders at all levels shall set local FPCONs
• Standard 6 – Terrorism VA, requires that terrorism Vas be conducted for any personnel designated as high-risk personnel (HRP). These assessments are referred to as a __________.
o Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment
• A Terrorism Vulnerability Assessment must be conducted for any event or activity determined to be a special event attended by ________ or more DoD personnel.
• The overriding concept of antiterrorism vulnerability reduction is to focus on two broad areas. Which ones are they?
o Preventing a terrorist incident from occurring and failing
o Substantially mitigating the effects of a terrorist attack
• The proactive and reactive aspects of force protection are divided into four significant elements. Which of the following are included in the four elements? Select all that apply.
o Threat, Vulnerability, and Risk Analysis
o Weapons Effect Mitigation
o Physical Security
• The installation ATO conducts a VA using key antiterrorism working group members in a collaborative effort as the assessment team.
• The Operation Readiness Specialists is responsible for assessing the water supply and distribution systems to determine their vulnerability to waterborne contamination.
• Units must have the ability to improvise in a ________ environment.
• CVAMP manages and identifies
• In CVAMP, the ATO role creates Vulnerability Assessments, observations, and funding requests.
• In CVAMP, if you are assigned the System Administrator, Commander, and Assesor permissions you have full control of the program.
• When developing/writing an AT plan, host nation, SOFA, and ______ legal considerations must be addressed.
• An AT plan will NOT be considered complete unless it is <1> ___________ and <2>___________.
• Conduct comprehensive field and staff training to exercise AT plans at least ________. Ensure AT exercises encompass all aspects of AT and physical security plans.
• Which of the following is NOT considered a minimum essential element of an AT plan?
o Intelligence Support
• When the FPCON checklist is linked to the AT plan, the entire document shall be classified at which level?
• Establish____________ or other similarly constructed protocols with the appropriate local, state, and federal, or host-nation authorities to support AT plan execution, augment incident response, and post-incident consequence management activities.
o Mutual Aid Agreements
• AT plans incorporate the terrorist threat into the Base Defense Plan.
• Click on the correct area of the Advanced Mode home page that displays information about your primary organization.
• Drag and drop each step of the Incorporating AT Security Consideration process to place them in the correct order.
o Determine contract requirements
o Conduct AT risk assessment
o Determine AT security requirements
o Build the contract
o Award/Execute the contract
o Contract review
• At overseas locations which of the following documents prescribe guidance for the contracting process with regard to host nation service providers. Select all correct answers.
• On which flight on 11 September 2001, did the passengers attempt to retake the airliner during a terrorist takeover?
o United Flight 93
• The six who plotted the 2007 attack on Fort Dix were part of a home grown terrorist group.
• Which of the following references is cited as an AT planning tool?
o AFM 10-4-1, Volume 2, Planning Formats and Guide
o Joint Pub 5-00.2, Joint Task Force Planning Guidance and Procedures
o Joint Antiterrorism Program Managers Guide
• From 18 September 2001 to 9 October 2001 as many as ___________ letters containing anthrax were mailed to addresses in Washington D.C. and New York.
• What did terrorists use to attack the USS Cole?
o Bomb-laden Boat
• In August of 1998 two US Embassies were bombed. Where did these attacks take place?
• After which bombing in 1996 did the DoD renew its efforts to improve force protection against terrorism while remaining engaged in the Middle East region.
o Khobar Towers in Saudi Arabia
• How or why was SPC Edward F. Pimental killed?
o Killed for his Base ID to enable terrorists to detonate a bombe inside the Rhein-Mein Air Base near Frankfurt
• What happened to Brigadier General James Dozier and where did it take place?
o Kidnapped while in
o His home
• Timothy McVeigh and Terry Nichols were convicted for which terrorist bombing?
o Murrah Federal Building in OKC
• Which of the following is/are required annexes when developing a basic AT plan?
o Medical Services/Force Health Protection
• The Commander is responsible for the development of the AT plan; however, the Security Forces Commander is normally assigned the task of actually writing the plan.
• When integrating an AT plan with integrated defense plans, the new plan should be seamless in requirements and application.
• The AT plan must ensure the installation can warn its resident population in affected areas of CBRNE hazard identification immediately, but no longer than _______ minutes after detection.
• Funds must be obligated within ______ days
• CVAMP functionality is determined by your
• Observations from the final report must be input into CVAMP within 60 days of receipt.
• AFI 10-245 is an Air Force instruction that implements the instructions in DoDI 2000.12 and DoDI 2000.16
• CVAMP is an optional tool used to manage Vulnerability Assessments (VA)
• Which of the following are roles assignable to a CVAMP user?
o Resource Advisor
o System Administrator
• In CVAMP, programmatic observations are those that the Commander can write a policy, regulation or anything with his/her signature block to correct the deficiency.
• Vulnerability Assessments must be entered into CVAMP within how many days of the final report?
• When submitting a funding request in CVAMP, the assessment must be less than ______ years old.
• _________ are responsible for ensuring AT security measures are included in the contracting process.
• The ATO and ____ are responsible for ensuring the application of the Commander’s guidance.
o Contracting Officer