ATO II LEVEL 2 Questions and Answers

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to ATO Level 2

• The DoD and USAF define terrorism as the ____ use or threat of unlawful violence to instill fear.
o Calculated


• The DoD and USAF defines terrorism as the intention to coerce or intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological.
o True


• Which position is assigned the task of actually writing an AT plan?
o Installation or self-supported facility ATO


• Deploying units having _______or more personnel assigned or under the operational control of a designated commander, will have a Level II-certified ATO assigned.
o 300


• Who will determine the appropriate FPCON level?
o Commander assigned AT responsibility


• Which document provides detailed information to assist in managing AT elements/activities?
o DoD O-2000.12-H


• Which of the following is NOT an element of the Risk Management process?
o Asset assessment


• The AT risk management process and procedures shall be reviewed at least annually. An AT program review, higher headquarters assessment, or JSIVA visit satisfies this annual requirement. What is the normal frequency for higher headquarters assessments?
o Every third year


• Which of the following plans contain command-specific guidance for the establishment of an antiterrorism program and the implementation of antiterrorism standards?
o Antiterrorism Plan


Complete the sentence below by clicking on the correct item in the list.
• AT planning is critical to deterrence, detection, defense, and ____________.
o Response to terrorist incidents


• Family members that are ________ years or older traveling beyond CONUS on official business (i.e. on an accompanied PCS move), shall receive Level I AT Awareness training as part of their pre-departure requirements.
o 14


• Deploying units having ________ personnel assigned or under the operational control of a designated commander, will have a Level II-certified ATO assigned.
o 300 or more


• Which level of AT training is designed to prepare ATOs to manage AT programs, advise the commander on all AT issues, and qualify individuals to administer AT Awareness Training?
o Level II


• Which level of AT training provides senior military and civilian executive leadership with the requisite knowledge to enable development of AT Program policies and facilitate oversight of all aspects of AT Programs at the operational and strategic levels?
o Level IV


• Who is the AF Program Element Monitor (PEM) for the AF AT program?
o AF/A7SX


• Which funding source is the PRIMARY means for combatant commanders to react to unforeseen requirements from changes in a terrorist threat, threat levels, antiterrorism doctrine and standards, as well as unanticipated requirements identified as a result of vulnerability assessments, tactical operations, and exercising AT plans?
o Combatant Commander’s Initiative Fund (CCIF)


• The systematic assessment of the AT program against standards prescribed by DoD Instruction 200.16 requires a comprehensive AT program review be conducted to evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the program. During this AT program review which of the following areas must be evaluated?
o Risk Management
o AT Planning
o Training and Exercise


• In accordance with Training and Exercise standards, AT exercise documentation must be maintained for no less than _____ to ensure incorporation of lessons learned.
o 2 years


• Which of the following correctly defines Lessons Learned(L2)?
o Lessons learned (L2) An insight gained that improves military operations or activities at the strategic, operational, or tactical level, and results in long-term, internalized change to an individual, group of individuals, or an organization.


• Select the all the fundamental functions of the AF Lessons Learned.
o Tracking
o Collection
o Dissemination
o Validation


• The Joint Lessons Learned Repository (JLLR) is a common searchable database in which selected L2 observations are deposited and is viewable by all active duty personnel.
o False


• Who develops and provides AOR specific training and provide in-transit forces with threat information?
o Geographic Combatant Commander (GCC)


• ____________ includes focused information on potential terrorist threats (e.g., tailored production and analysis) and guidance on the development of AT protection risk mitigation measures to aid in the development of tailored AT planning.
o AOR-Specific Training for DoD Personnel and In-transit Forces


• ___________ is a system of countermeasures protecting assets and includes the aggressor tactics and the associated weapons, explosives, tools, and agents.
o UFC 4-020-01


• The DBT does NOT provide a rational basis for making and justifying potentially expensive decisions, designing the security system, and evaluating the adequacy of the security system.
o False


• Antiterrorism is a/an ___________ responsibility and must be thoroughly integrated into every unit attached to the installation, to include tenants, sister services, and attached agencies.
o Installation Commander’s


• Within the normal structured organizational relationship on an installation, who is directly subordinate to the Installation Commander with responsibility for program oversight of the installation’s Antiterrorism Program?
o Installation ATO


• The Primary focus of the Crisis Action Team is __________.
o Mission Continuation


• Critical assets may also be private assets, that if lost would seriously disrupt DoD operations.
o True


• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 5 requires a CA to identify, classify, and prioritize mission-essential assets, resources, and personnel critical to DoD mission success.
o True


• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 5 requires Cas be updated at least every two years to determine the degree of asset criticality.
o False


• CAs are also conducted on __________ assets such as high population facilities and mass gathering activities.
o Non-mission Essential


• CAs shall provide the basis for identifying those assets that require specific protective <1> _______ and <2> _______ for resources allocation when developing and updating the AT plan.
o Measures
o Priorities


• Some of the goals for conducting a CA are:
o Identify the installation’s/unit’s key assets
o Determine if critical functions can be duplicated under various attack scenarios
o Determine the time required to replace key assets or infrastructures if temporarily or permanently lost
o Determine the priority for responses to key assets, functions, and infrastructures in the event of fire, multiple bombings, or other terrorist acts.


• In the joint environment, the__________ is responsible for base force protection and security operations.
o Joint Forward Operating Base Commander


• ______________ helps to overcome the challenges created when different units from different commands with different missions are assigned to support the Joint Forward Operating Base’s force protection mission.
o Unity of command


• The purpose of the CA process is to identify and prioritize all assets on an installation. Assets include personnel, equipment, stockpiles, buildings, recreation areas, or transportation systems.
o True


• The purpose of a CA matrix is to determine the vulnerability of security operations on an installation.
o False


• The purpose of the _________ is to develop and refine AT program guidance, policy, and standards, act upon recommendations of the ATWG and TWG and determine resource allocation priorities to mitigate or eliminate terrorism-related vulnerabilities?
o Antiterrorism Executive Council (ATEC)


• Which group is NOT required to have a charter?
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)


• Which Antiterrorism group’s charter should be developed to describe member responsibilities, minimum functional and SME participation?
o Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG)


• The Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander chairs the _________.
o Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG)


• No specific threat information equals an absence of threat.
o False


• Which Antiterrorism group’s membership includes: the ATO, commander (or a designated rep), members of the staff, tenant unit representatives, appropriate representation from direct-hire, contractor, local, State, Federal, and host-nation law enforcement agencies and the intelligence community?
o Threat Working Group (TWG)


• Which Antiterrorism group meets at least semi-annually and acts upon recommendations of the Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG) and Threat Working Group (TWG)?
o Antiterrorism Executive Council (ATEC)


• IAW DoD Directive 2000.12, a <1> asset is any facility, equipment, service, or resource considered essential to DoD Operations in peace, crisis, and war; warranting measures and precautions to ensure its continued efficient operation, protection from disruption, degradation or destruction, and its timely restoration.
o Critical


• The TA matrix establishes a range of specific weapons and tactics.
o True


• From the list below, select all that are individual components of the TA matrix.
o Threat Priority
o Tactic
o Weapon
o Delivery Method


• From the list below, select the three that are hazard categories.
o Cyber
o Natural
o Accidents


• Select the terrorist threat information source(s) that fall under the Department of Defense. Select all that apply.
o Combatant Commands
o Intelligence Center/J2
o DIA – JITF-CT


• Terrorist threat information sources can include open source materials such as the Internet, books and studies, newspapers and periodicals.
o True


• _____________is the product resulting from the collection, processing, integration, analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of available information concerning foreign countries or areas (Joint Pub 3-07.2)
o Intelligence


• ______________is information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted by or on behalf foreign governments or elements thereof, foreign organizations, or foreign persons, or international terrorist activities (Joint Pub 3-07.2)
o Counterintelligence (CI)


• Collectively, the threat analysis, intelligence, and counterintelligence provides priority information requirements to identify potential terrorist targets based on existing knowledge of an organization.
o True


• The small size of terrorist groups, their mobility, and training in CI and security measures are some of the factors that complicate <1>__________ and <2>_________ collection and operations.
o Intelligence
o Counterintelligence


• IAW DoD Instruction 2000.16, a _________ Assessment, addresses the effect of temporary or permanent loss of key assets or infrastructures on the installation or a unit’s ability to perform its mission.
o Criticality


• A Criticality Assessment also examines the cost of recovery and constitution including time, funds, capability, and infrastructure support.
o True


• DoD Instruction 2000.16, Standard 16 requires identification to the responsible military department those personnel, including designated family members, requiring formal high-risk personnel training before assignment.
o True


• DoD Instruction 2000.16 and AFI 10-245, Standard 16 requires that a personnel security vulnerability assessment (PSVA) be completed for each person who is an O-6 or above.
o False


• The _______ is used to identify the terrorist threats posed to DoD assets and/or the threats that could be encountered in executing a mission.
o Threat Assessment


• The __________leverages information and intelligence to support the timely identification of indicators and warnings of emerging localized threats. This group also serves as the primary information source directly supporting the Defense Force Commander (DFC) in making immediate proactive decisions for integrated defense planning.
o (Answer not given as a solution: Threat Information Fusion Cell (TIFC)
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)???


• The ___________ assures that the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) considers the most current data regarding the threat and operating environments.
o Threat Information Fusion Cell (TIFC)
o Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)???


• __________ is a command and control facility established by the Joint Forward Operating Base (JFOB) commander to serve as the focal point for base defense, force protection and security operations.
o Base Defense Operations Center


• Essential members of the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) include representatives from all of the units below EXCEPT ______.
o Transportation


• How many Emergency Support Functions are located in the Emergency Operations Center:
o Fifteen


• The_________ provides the commander with a tool to assess the potential vulnerabilities of an installation, unit, exercise, port, ship, residence, facility, or other site.
o Vulnerability Assessment


• Vulnerability fall into which three of the following categories?
o Vulnerabilities
o Options
o Observations


• Risk management is defined as the process of selecting and implementing countermeasures to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.
o True


• Risk = Criticality x Threat x Vulnerability
o True


• Drag and drop each of the following steps in the Risk Management Process to put them in their correct order with the first step on the op and the last on the bottom.
o Assess Assets
o Assess Threats
o Assess Vulnerabilities
o Assess Risks


• It is important to note that the asset RA table is meant to be an exact science. It is the only method of quantifying risk.
o False


• Risk avoidance integrates the process of assessing the threat, the vulnerabilities, and the value of the asset to the owner. It also weighs the risk of compromise/loss against the cost of security practices.
o False


• Who normally has authority to determine acceptable risk?
o Installation Commander


• Site specific FPCON measures are designed for unique requirements of an installation or mission. Each functional commander should develop and it can be base-wide or facility specific.
o True


• Threat levels define the degree of threat; FPCONs define security measures to protect against that threat.
o True


• The <1> ________ system provides a framework of prescribed <2> _________ and cycles necessary for reestablishing the confidence level and security information systems for the commander and thereby supporting the entire Global Information Grid.
o INFOCON
o Actions


• The INFOCON system applies to both the NIPR and SIPR NETs.
o True


• Which two of the following categories are used for Vulnerabilities?
o Programmatic
o Procedural


• ______ options must be identified in order to develop controls, make decisions, implement controls, supervise, and review.
o Mitigation


• Barrier plans establish access/entry control points in contingencies.
o True


• Barrier plans are used to support installation AT plans in all of the following examples, EXCEPT?
o Installation beautification


• A key element of a Barrier Plan should identify owners/users tasked with erecting barriers and _______.
o Specified Time Periods


• As part of an effective evacuation plan, ensure that all maps are marked with exits, are posted throughout each facility, and that all personnel knows the location of the rally point.
o True


• As part of your emergency evacuation plan, always post evacuation rally points on maps. It allows assigned personnel to quickly locate their rally point during an emergency.
o False


• Click on the correct AFI that is used to assist with the planning of installation vehicle inspection areas.
o AFI 10-2401


• Which of the following are mitigation assistance groups?
o Rapid Equipping Force
o Technical Support Working Group
o Physical Security Equipment Action Group


• Antiterrorism construction standards were developed to identify appropriate and enforceable measures to eliminate further need for countermeasures for possible terrorist attacks.
o False


• Building system design consists of which of the following considerations.
o Signage
o Circulation
o Space Planning


• Standard 6 – Terrorism VA, requires that the assessment be conducted and updated at least _________ or more frequently if the terrorist threat assessment or mission requirements dictate.
o Annually


• Upon completion of a Vulnerability Assessment, Standard 6 requires that the CVAMP database be populated with the results within _______ days.
o 90


• When conducting a VA, you must step outside of your usual role and think like a ____________.
o Terrorist


• One of the HHQ team objectives is to assist the _______ Commander in meeting the AT and FP responsibilities.
o Installation


• The Core VA Management Program (CVAMP) is an automated and web-based means of managing a command’s vulnerabilities and associated funding requirements.
o True


• __________ is covered in the CARVER method and should be used as a criterion for vulnerability.
o Criticality


• MSHARPP focuses mainly on the threat to the situations, activities, capabilities, and resources on an installation that are vulnerable to a terrorist attack.
o True


• When determining assets and threats, the same considerations should be given to the systems approach in the _________ environment as when in the cantonment area.
o Tactical


• Security resources and measures are applied to _______ and to deter, detect, defend, and defeat the threat.
o Mitigate risks


• Barrier systems are considered _________ if they require action by personnel or equipment to permit entry.
o Active


• Barrier systems are considered _________ if their effectiveness relies on their bulk or mass and they have no moving parts.
o Passive


• Barrier systems are considered _________ if they are permanently installed or if heavy equipment is required to move or dismantle the barriers.
o Fixed


• Barrier systems are considered ________ if they can be transferred from place to place.
o Movable


• During contingency operations, key facilities or missions should be considered for ________ and visual assessment.
o Electronic Detection


• The one method of reducing risk that is controllable is reducing the ____________.
o Vulnerability


• An action taken or a physical entity used to reduce or eliminate one or more vulnerability, threat, or impact is a _________.
o Countermeasure


• The three categories of observations are concern, positive, and neutral.
o True


• An option is an action that can be taken or equipment that can be applied to reduce or eliminate one or more __________.
o Vulnerabilities


• Servicing ________ detachments will provide a threat assessment for any to the supported installation.
o Air Force Office of Special Investigations


• Deploying commanders shall implement appropriate ___________ to reduce risk and vulnerability before and after deployment.
o Antiterrorism measures


• Activities involving hazardous, toxic, and/or explosive materials that should be isolated from other activities fall under which type of consideration.
o Industrial Safety and Hygiene


• Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAMs) are FPCON measures selected from higher measures which are randomly implemented during lower FPCONs.
o True


• ____________ will make a decision on how best to employ given resources and force protection measure to deter, mitigate, or prepare for a terrorist incident.
o Installation Commander


• Which of the following titles is “a chairman of the Joint Chief’s of Staff approved program standardizing the Department’s identification, recommended preventive actions, and responses to terrorist threats against U.S. personnel and facilities. The system is the primary means for a commander to apply an operational decision on how to protect against terrorism.
o Force Protection Conditions (FPCON)


• Commanders at all levels shall set local FPCONs
o True


• Standard 6 – Terrorism VA, requires that terrorism Vas be conducted for any personnel designated as high-risk personnel (HRP). These assessments are referred to as a __________.
o Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment


• A Terrorism Vulnerability Assessment must be conducted for any event or activity determined to be a special event attended by ________ or more DoD personnel.
o 300


• The overriding concept of antiterrorism vulnerability reduction is to focus on two broad areas. Which ones are they?
o Preventing a terrorist incident from occurring and failing
o Substantially mitigating the effects of a terrorist attack


• The proactive and reactive aspects of force protection are divided into four significant elements. Which of the following are included in the four elements? Select all that apply.
o Threat, Vulnerability, and Risk Analysis
o Weapons Effect Mitigation
o Physical Security


• The installation ATO conducts a VA using key antiterrorism working group members in a collaborative effort as the assessment team.
o True


• The Operation Readiness Specialists is responsible for assessing the water supply and distribution systems to determine their vulnerability to waterborne contamination.
o False


• Units must have the ability to improvise in a ________ environment.
o Tactical


• CVAMP manages and identifies
o Vulnerabilities


• In CVAMP, the ATO role creates Vulnerability Assessments, observations, and funding requests.
o True


• In CVAMP, if you are assigned the System Administrator, Commander, and Assesor permissions you have full control of the program.
o False


• When developing/writing an AT plan, host nation, SOFA, and ______ legal considerations must be addressed.
o Jurisdictional


• An AT plan will NOT be considered complete unless it is <1> ___________ and <2>___________.
o Signed
o Exercised


• Conduct comprehensive field and staff training to exercise AT plans at least ________. Ensure AT exercises encompass all aspects of AT and physical security plans.
o Annually


• Which of the following is NOT considered a minimum essential element of an AT plan?
o Intelligence Support


• When the FPCON checklist is linked to the AT plan, the entire document shall be classified at which level?
o Confidential


• Establish____________ or other similarly constructed protocols with the appropriate local, state, and federal, or host-nation authorities to support AT plan execution, augment incident response, and post-incident consequence management activities.
o Mutual Aid Agreements


• AT plans incorporate the terrorist threat into the Base Defense Plan.
o True


• Click on the correct area of the Advanced Mode home page that displays information about your primary organization.
o “ORGANIZATION”


• Drag and drop each step of the Incorporating AT Security Consideration process to place them in the correct order.
o Determine contract requirements
o Conduct AT risk assessment
o Determine AT security requirements
o Build the contract
o Award/Execute the contract
o Contract review


• At overseas locations which of the following documents prescribe guidance for the contracting process with regard to host nation service providers. Select all correct answers.
o SOFA
o MOA


• On which flight on 11 September 2001, did the passengers attempt to retake the airliner during a terrorist takeover?
o United Flight 93


• The six who plotted the 2007 attack on Fort Dix were part of a home grown terrorist group.
o False


• Which of the following references is cited as an AT planning tool?
o AFM 10-4-1, Volume 2, Planning Formats and Guide
o Joint Pub 5-00.2, Joint Task Force Planning Guidance and Procedures
o Joint Antiterrorism Program Managers Guide


• From 18 September 2001 to 9 October 2001 as many as ___________ letters containing anthrax were mailed to addresses in Washington D.C. and New York.
o 7


• What did terrorists use to attack the USS Cole?
o Bomb-laden Boat


• In August of 1998 two US Embassies were bombed. Where did these attacks take place?
o Africa


• After which bombing in 1996 did the DoD renew its efforts to improve force protection against terrorism while remaining engaged in the Middle East region.
o Khobar Towers in Saudi Arabia


• How or why was SPC Edward F. Pimental killed?
o Killed for his Base ID to enable terrorists to detonate a bombe inside the Rhein-Mein Air Base near Frankfurt


• What happened to Brigadier General James Dozier and where did it take place?
o Kidnapped while in
o His home


• Timothy McVeigh and Terry Nichols were convicted for which terrorist bombing?
o Murrah Federal Building in OKC


• Which of the following is/are required annexes when developing a basic AT plan?
o Intelligence
o Logistics
o Medical Services/Force Health Protection


• The Commander is responsible for the development of the AT plan; however, the Security Forces Commander is normally assigned the task of actually writing the plan.
o False


• When integrating an AT plan with integrated defense plans, the new plan should be seamless in requirements and application.
o True


• The AT plan must ensure the installation can warn its resident population in affected areas of CBRNE hazard identification immediately, but no longer than _______ minutes after detection.
o 10


• Funds must be obligated within ______ days
o 90


• CVAMP functionality is determined by your
o Role


• Observations from the final report must be input into CVAMP within 60 days of receipt.
o True


• AFI 10-245 is an Air Force instruction that implements the instructions in DoDI 2000.12 and DoDI 2000.16
o True


• CVAMP is an optional tool used to manage Vulnerability Assessments (VA)
o False


• Which of the following are roles assignable to a CVAMP user?
o Commander
o Resource Advisor
o ATO
o System Administrator
o Assessor


• In CVAMP, programmatic observations are those that the Commander can write a policy, regulation or anything with his/her signature block to correct the deficiency.
o False


• Vulnerability Assessments must be entered into CVAMP within how many days of the final report?
o 120


• When submitting a funding request in CVAMP, the assessment must be less than ______ years old.


• _________ are responsible for ensuring AT security measures are included in the contracting process.
o Commanders


• The ATO and ____ are responsible for ensuring the application of the Commander’s guidance.
o Contracting Officer

Joint Staff Suicide Awareness and Prevention Questions and Answers

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to Joint Staff Suicide Awareness and Prevention CBT

A significant change in an individual's behavior can identify signs of a potential suicide. These changes can be immediate or lay dormant until an event triggers a behavior change.

-TRUE

The Military Crisis Line, online chat, and text-messaging service are free to all Service members, including members of the National Guard and Reserve, and Veterans.

-TRUE

Which of the following can be indicators that someone could be contemplating harm to themselves? (Choose all that apply.)

-Noticeable changes in eating/sleeping habits and 
personal hygiene
-Increased alcohol and/or drug use or abuse
-Expressing feelings of sadness, hopelessness, 
anxiety
-Loss of interest in hobbies

If you know someone who is experiencing any of the warning signs, you should call the Military or Veterans Crisis Line immediately.

-true

It is a sign of weakness to ask for help with your problems.

-false

As an individual, you CAN make a difference in someone's life by using the "ACE" tool when you suspect an "at-risk" person. ACE stands for:

Ask, Care, Escort


Unconscious Bias cbt Questions and Answers

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to Unconscious Bias cbt

What's the difference between bias and racism?

-Bias is all inclusive and racism is more specific.

 

When are biases positive influences?

-When there is imminent danger

 

What are biases?

-Biases are cognitive processes that come out of personal experiences

 

How do we become aware of our biases?

-Through self examination and reflection

 

When are biases negative influences?

-When they are used to restrict access

 

How do we address our biases?

-By being conscious of our thought processes

 

What impact might our biases have in the classroom?

-Our expectations for our students might not reflect their actual potential.

 

How do our biases affect those with whom we interact?

-Our behavior towards them are influenced by our biases

 

How do our unconscious biases affect the classroom climate?

-By narrowing the scope of activities and engagement found within the classroom.

 

How does reflection on our unconscious bias help us to help our students?

-It allows us to look at each student as an individual.

 

How does our awareness of our unconscious biases encourage us to provide enrichment for our students?

-By inspiring us to search out a variety of outlets for student involvement.

 

How does our awareness of our unconscious biases help us build relationships with our students?

-By allowing us to see them from their points of view.

 

How does our awareness of our unconscious biases remind us to integrate prerequisites for learning?

-By looking at the students different experiences and using them to plan the lessons.

 

How does our awareness of our unconscious biases enable us to start with our students' strengths?

-By reminding us to seek out the strength of each student before instruction.

 

How does our awareness of our unconscious biases aid us in amplifying student voice?

-It alerts us to the necessity of developing lessons that include the opportunities for student voice.

 

How does our awareness of our unconscious biases remove the barriers to focusing on high intellectual performance for all students?

-By giving us the understanding that ALL students are capable of doing whatever we expect of them.

 

How does our awareness of our unconscious biases engender the ability to situate learning in our student's lives.

-By opening us to the opportunities to learn about all of our student's lives.

 

How can we aid our students in becoming aware of and overcoming their unconscious biases?

-By using strategies that encourage their self reflection.

 

How does our awareness of our unconscious biases keep us from using past performances as the basis of our perceptions of the students' current potential?

-By reminding us that students grow and change with the years.

 

What is the role of the school staff in overcoming unconscious bias in the whole school environment?

-By taking responsibility for holding each other accountable for their students' experiences within the school.

Functional Area Manager (FAM) Questions and Answers

This article will provide you with the complete questions and answers for functional area Manager (FAM)

What responsibility of a FAM deals with issuing guidance as well as interpreting, developing, and applying Joint, Air Force, MAJCOM or Air Force Component operational/exercise planning and execution policies

-Develop and review Air Force and MAJCOM policy

 

What responsibility of a FAM deals with performing UTC development, management and maintenance?

-Develop, manage and maintain UTCs

 

Who is the individual accountable for the management and oversight of all personnel and equipment within a specific functional area to support operational planning and execution?

-Functional Area Manager (FAM)

 

What responsibility of a MAJCOM FAM monitoring the readiness status of all functional units on a continual basis including SORTS and ART

-Monitoring readiness reporting

 

What responsibility of a FAM deals with ensuring the TFPDD accurately reflects and is consistent with resources that actual units will deploy

-Perform execution activities

 

What responsibility of a FAM deals with staying fully engaged and involved with end to end TFPDD management process.

-OPLAN development

 

What responsibility of a FAM deals with using DCAPES and AFVC to support sourcing and verification process for their responsible sources?

-Sourcing

 

What is the lack of forces, equipment, personnel, material or capability reflected as the difference between the resources identified as a plan requirement and those apportioned to a CCDR for planning that would adversely affect the commands ability to accomplish its mission

-Shortfall

 

What is the process to request to duly constituted authority to reconsider its decision or proposed action?

-Reclama

 

What assists in scheduling FAM training requirements, determining additional training requirements and tracking appointment status of all FAMs for all commands or agencies? AF/A3OD designated overall for AF

-Office of the FAM Oversight

 

What responsibility of a FAM refers to the guidance provided by FAMs to maximize the number of UTCs posture using based units' authorizations?

-Perform force posturing & coding

 

 

Environmental Management System (EMS) Questions and Answers

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers for Environmental Management System (EMS)

What would you do if an environmental emergency (e.g., spill) occurs?

-all of the above

 

Which of the following does NOT help conserve natural resources?

-dispose of oil down the sink

 

What are the main commitments of our Environmental Policy?

-Compliance, Pollution Prevention, Waste Reduction, Continual Improvement

 

What is an Environmental Management System (EMS)?

-all of the above

 

What is an environmental aspect?

-part of your job that interacts with the environment

 

What is one way you can help NSAB minimize solid waste generation?

-Print only when absolutely necessary and print double-sided.

 

Why is erosion and sediment control (storm water management) the significant aspect?

-all of the above

Law Of War (LOW) Questions and Answers

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to Law of War (LOW)

Which one of the answers below is not one of the three categories of Law of War treaties to which the United States is party?

-Those that define the organization of military forces

 

The two elements of the Principle of Proportionality are Justification in acting, and __________________?.

-May not cause unreasonably incidental harm

 

Of the following, which one is defined as, directives and orders that delineate the authorities and limitations under which the U.S. armed forces will initiate and/or continue the use of force against other forces?

-Rules of Engagement

 

 

According to the Child Soldier Protocol what is the minimum age for compulsory recruitment?

-18

 

Rules of engagement can allow actions that are prohibited by the Law of War.

-False

 

As a member of the US Armed Forces the Law of War helps you make the lawful decisions of war in difficult circumstances that arise in armed conflict.

-True

 

The United States is NOT a party to the Rome Statute. What does the Rome Statute establish?

-An international court for war crimes

 

 

To be effective, both parties to a conflict must agree to recognize the establishment of protected areas.

-True

 

When a state of war exists, the parties to a conflict involved must comply with ____________________.

-Customary international law

-Resolutions of the United Nations Security Council

-The Law of War obligations of their Country

 

 

Humanity is a principle of the Law of War that addresses the immunity of peaceful populations and civilian objects from attack.

-True

 

What activities does the Law of War address?

-The resort to armed force

-The conduct of hostilities

-The relationship between belligerent and neutral States

 

Which two of the following acts are prohibited acts of perfidy?

-Fighting in the enemy's uniform

What document establishes authorized procedures for interrogating detainees?

-Army Field Manual 2-22.3 Human Intelligence Collector Operations

 

Which two of the following persons are exempt from attack?

-Military personnel exclusively assigned to, and engaged in, medical or chaplain duties

 

The Law of War principle of Honor influences the conduct of activities by encouraging refrain from taking advantage of the adversary's adherence to the Law of War and to encourage combatants to act in good faith in non-hostile relations.

-True

The Law of War is formed from written law contained in treaties and customary international law.

-True

 

What two methods are used to identify cultural property in accordance with the 1954 Hague Cultural Property Convention?

-A distinctive emblem

-An international registry

 

 

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the purposes of the Law of War?

-Protecting the right of free expression for peoples in conflict

 

The Law of War may overlap, or be included within, other bodies or types of international law.

-True

Which two of the following are true about the principle of Military Necessity?

-It justifies the use of overwhelming force, but not wanton destruction

-It does not justify prohibited actions

 

Which Law of War principle obligates parties to a conflict to discriminate between the armed forces and those taking no active part in hostilities?

-Proportionality

 

 

What is the primary focus of the four Geneva Conventions of 1949?

-Protection of the victims of armed conflict

 

The principles of the Law of War are part of international laws but are not spelled out explicitly.

-True

 

Which two of the following special classes of persons are considered unprivileged belligerents?

-Members of non-state armed groups and civilians that directly take part in hostilities

 

-Spies and saboteurs

 

 

What two of the following statements combine to form the definition of a military objective?

-An object which by its nature, location, purpose, or use makes an effective contribution to the enemy's military action

 

-The partial or total destruction, capture, or neutralization of the object offers a definite military advantage

 

 

Which of the following rules pertain to law enforcement and security duties?

-Rules on the Use of Force

 

 

 

Which statement on the use of force in self-defense to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent is most accurate?

-The use of force may exceed hostile intent demonstrated by the enemy, as long as the force used is necessary and proportional to counter the threat

 

 

 

The Law of War does not permit wanton destruction. What is wanton destruction?

-Destruction without purpose

 

 

 

What is the purpose of the Law of War principles?

-To work as interdependent and reinforcing parts of a coherent system of rules

 

-To help provide an interpretation of the written Law of War

 

-To animate potential new rules that could be incorporated into new treaties to address new developments or novel issues that arise during warfare

 

-To help provide clarification and interpretation of the many conventions, treaties, and protocols that are part of the Law of War

 

 

 

When conducting an attack, armed forces should take feasible precautions to reduce the risk of incidental harms to civilians and civilian objects. Which of the following actions could be considered a feasible precaution?

-Effective advance warning

-Adjusting the timing of the attack

-Weapon selection

-Evacuation of the protected population

Air Force Inspection System (AFIS)

This article will provide all the questions and answers to Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) .

AFIS

-Integrated, synchronized system of inspections

 

4 major graded areas (MGA)

-Leading your people; Improving your unit; Managing resources; Executing the mission

 

What is AF policy on CC's at wing level and below regarding IG inspection?

-Commanders at wing level or below will receive at least ONE. IG inspection report during their command tour.

 

What does AFIS Give SECAF, CSAF, & CC's at all levels

-an independent assessment of the compliance, mission capability, & fix deficiencies

 

AFIS objective

-Assessing a unit's readiness, economy, effeciency, effectiveness, & state of discipline (REEED) --> to execute mission

 

 

Purpose of AFIS

-Enable/strengthen CC's effectiveness & efficiency; motivate & promote military discipline; improve unit performance & mgmt excellence

-Identify issues with REEED, compliance, performance, surety & mgmt excellence

 

Wing Inspection Team (WIT) responsibilities

-Identify non-compliance

 

Wg/CC, subordinate CC's & supervisor responsibilities

-Detect non-compliance through self-assessment program

 

Wing IG responsibilities

-Wing should document non-compliance in CCIP insp reports in IGEM

 

 

MAJCOM IG responsibilities

-Document areas of undetected non-compliance; scores Wing CCIP

 

When can CCIP BE positively scored by MAJCOM IG

-By enabling the Command chain a root cause analysis (RCA) and apply corrective actions

 

AFIS Model

1) Mgmt Insp (Field) 2) UEI (Wg) 3)CCIP (Gp/Sq) 4) indiv reporting

 

Mgmt insp

-MAJCOM, DRU, FOA

 

Indiv reporting

-Every Amn is a sensor

 

UEI

-Wing equivalents most DRUs & FOAs

 

CCIP

-Gp/sq/Wg programs

 

 

WIT

-Owned by Wg CC and managed by Wg IG

 

WIT members

-Are not assigned to IG office (out of hide)

 

Wg level inspection

-Vertical/horizontal

 

WIT responsibilities

-Scenario development, inspect areas, provide inputs; verify/validate self-assessment program (sworn in by oath)

 

 

Vertical inspection

-Comes from wing/deep dive/can be single function of program

 

Horizontal inspection

-Wing wide functional insp/equal levels looking at each other

-Large scale exercise

-Wing/base two or more organizations

 

Types of exercises

-Large-scale/small-scale

 

 

Small scale exercise

-Not impacting whole wing (no outside agency response)

 

CIMB

-Meets monthly or as needed

 

Focus of the CIMB

-Reduce undetected noncompliance, manage risk for known areas of noncompliance, ensure wing inspection plan meets CC's requirements

 

CIMB objectives

-ID areas W/risk of undetected noncompliance, assess RCA of noncompliance, determine appropriate actions, review waiver status

CIMB attendees

-Wg/CC (chair), Gp CC, Wg staff agency Chiefs, sq CC may attend

 

Wing CIMB reviews

-Status of corrective action plans, new inspection deficiencies, objective plans for upcoming CCIP events

 

 

Wing IG administers CIMB

-Slides generated by IG, GP and SQ populates

 

Inspection types

-Internal/external

 

Internal inspections

-Conducted by WIT, responsibility and accountability, CCs control the depth and scope, CCIP will focus on detecting noncompliance

 

Examples of external inspections

IG, non-Air Force, none IG, accreditation and certification, UEI

 

External inspections

-Independent inspections of REED

 

 

Internal insp of CCIP looks at what?

-DOC statements, mission essential task list, universal joint task list, mission directives, unit type code

 

CCIP reduces

-Risks of undetected noncompliance

 

Wing IG will validate

-If your self-assessment is defective

 

 

Self assessment program is documented in

-MICT

 

CCIP does what?

-Assess risk, ID areas of improvement, determines RCA & focus limited resources

 

Deficiencies will

-Describe defect requiring resolution

-Deficiencies address impact of

-Continued deviation or noncompliance

 

Deficiency severities are signed

-Critical, significant, or minor

 

 

Id FAM OPR at the IG for

-Critical/significant deficiencies (Will have POC's assigned to it)

 

WIT enters deficiency into

-IGEMS

 

PM is responsible to change MICT to

-Reflect deficiency

 

Open and close deficiencies are visible to

-Unit, group, wing, and FAM (MAJCOM)

 

Inspection period begins

-Immediately after the close out of the previous UEI report

 

UEI is conducted by

-MAJCOM IGs, AFIA

 

 

Airmen to IG sessions (ATIS)

-Structure discussion by a train facilitator who gathers info/perspective on issues that IG might need to inspect

 

Special interest item (SII)

-Means to gather data to evaluate status of specific programs; no more than 5 active SIIs

 

MAJCOM/IGs will sample

-SIIs during formal insp

 

Normally SIIs will not be

-Graded/rated

 

 

CII

-MAJCOM unique procedures to gather data on interest items (limit 5 & not coincide with AF SII)

 

Frequency of UEI cycle (AD/reserve)

-24-30 months

 

Continual evaluation

-Virtual sampling on MICT; focus on trend items

 

Ang UEI cycle

-48-60

 

 

Outstanding

-85-100

 

Highly effective

-65-84.9

 

Effective

-35-64.9

 

Ineffective

-0-14.9

 

Marginally effective

-15-34.9

 

 

Ineffective ratings

-IG visit to validate CCIP within 90 days (65% max)

 

Inspection reports

-Strengths, deficiencies, recommended improvement areas RIA

 

Score between 35-65 during the 90 day

-Shortened 1 year UEI cycle

 

 

Executive summary

-5 days after IG departure

RCA

-AF 8 step problem-solving model

 

Final inspection report available in IGEMS

-NLT 30 days

 

 

Problem-solving responsibility and corrective action resides where?

-Lowest appropriate command levels

 

Open deficiencies corrective action will report status to IG

-Quarterly

 

Deficiency corrective actions

-Corrective action plans to IG's NLT 45 days (90 ARC)

 

 

All deficiencies not requiring a long-term solution

-Should be closed within 12 months

Post Attack Reconnaissance (PAR) Course

This Article will provide you with all the questions and answers to Post Attack Reconnaissance (Par) Course

Installations must evaluate the current operations, intelligence reports, and __________ to determine the current local threat.

-risk assessment

 

Irregular forces are difficult to detect because they act __________.

-independently

 

What is the proper plow of information from PAR teams to the installation commander?

-PAR teams, control centers, emergency operations center, crisis action team, installation commander

 

After an attack, information is collected from PAR teams and used to confirm or deny the presence of hazards that may affect what aspect of an installation?

-All of the above.

When do PAR teams begin chemical detection and UXO identification within their specified areas or sectors?

-Alarm Black - Limited Release

The analysis of post attack reconnaissance and damage assessment reports provides the installation Commander with a common operational picture of the damage and contamination on the installation.

-true

 

What must you do if you cannot evacuate personnel, equipment, or leave a particular are from the UXO?

-isolate.

 

 

The EOC director determines recovery plan actions on the contamination type and location, the extent of damage, and mission priorities.

-true

 

AFIMS includes actions for deploying the DRF, implementing response plans and checklists and initializing the installation notification and warning system.

-true

 

Which of the following are accomplished during explosive ordnance reconnaissance?

-identify, mark, report

Which function tracks the location of known attack hazards, advises unit personnel of hazard locations, and directs the movement of unit assets away from hazard areas?

-control centers

 

When do mission essential personnel leave their protected positions to accomplish assigned duties?

-Alarm Black - General Release

 

 

When are CBRN reconnaissance and airfield damage assessment teams, along with first and emergency responders, released into initially determine the severity of the attack and perform lifesaving activities?

-Alarm Black - Initial Release

 

Who is responsible for providing criteria to equip specialized teams, analyzing PAR team findings, and advising the EOC director on mission impact?

-emergency management personnel

 

 

Which is the best protective measure for UXOs and is based on explosive filler quantity?

-evacuation

 

PAR teams are initially comprised of __________ that could directly communicate with their respective control center.

-facility managers

 

When should PAR teams prepare and become familiar with their assigned areas?

-A. and B.

Many aspects of CBRN preparedness apply to force survivability and mission continuation regardless of __________.

-the nature of the attack

 

At a minimum, what do you mark or annotate when placing M8 paper?

-all of the above

 

What is the minimum size for a PAR team?

-two personnel

 

Emergency Operations center (EOC) Operations Course

This article will provide you with all the questions and answers to Emergency Operations center (EOC) Operations Course.

1.ACTIVATION OF E.O.C.

-The E.O.C. is activated only on orders of the Mayor or City Manager. Notification of the activation of E.O.C. will be made to the Fire Chief (or Acting Fire Chief) directly or through Dispatch and Deployment from one of these sources

 

2.The Emergency Operations Center (E.O.C.) is

-the City's coordination center for emergency services during any major emergency effecting the City. The E.O.C. is activated when ordered by the Mayor, City Manager, or one of their designated representatives.

 

 

3.An EOC provides a central location of authority and information and allows for face-to-face coordination among personnel who must make emergency decisions. The following functions are among those performed in the City of Phoenix EOC:

-Receiving and disseminating warnings.

• Developing policies.

• Collecting intelligence from and disseminating information to the various EOC representatives and, as appropriate, to County and State agencies,, military and federal agencies.

• Preparing intelligence/information summaries, situation reports, operation reports and other reports as required.

• Maintaining general and specific maps, information display boards and other data pertaining to emergency operations.

• Continuing analysis and evaluation of all data pertaining to emergency operations.

• Controlling and coordinating, within established policy, the operations and logistical support of the departmental resources committed to the emergency operations.

• Maintaining contact with support EOC's, other jurisdictions and levels of government.

• Providing emergency information and instructions to the public. Making official releases to the media and the scheduling of press conferences as necessary

 

4.The Fire Department personnel assigned to E.O.C. are responsible for:

Obtaining and prioritizing resource needs for field incident commanders.

• Providing the City Command Staff information on field conditions.

• Interpreting directives from City Command Staff.

• Requesting policy direction from City Command Staff when necessary.

• Communicating policy directives to field forces.

• Providing liaison with other involved agencies.

• Maintaining constant awareness of field conditions and deployment.

• Obtaining authorization for expenditures for requested private sector resources needed to complete assigned functions.

 

5.The Fire Chief, or his designee, is a member of the Policy Advisory Group in the E.O.C., responsible for

-emergency management of City operations and may be responsible for acting as a Section Chief under IMS. The Command Staff interprets incoming information, makes management decisions, issues policy statements and directives and coordinates the efforts of all city agencies.

 

 

6.All field Command Officers will keep E.O.C. informed of

-informed of conditions, progress, level of commitment, resource requirements and situation urgency during a major emergency

 

Religious Freedom

1.What is the separation of church and state?

-Keeping the government out of religion

-What is religious freedom?

-The right to practice his or her own religion, or no religion at all.

 

 

2.What is the Free Exercise Clause?

-The right to worship or not as you choose. The government can't penalize you because of your religious beliefs.

3.How do you know the government is "establishing religion"?

-Have a non religious purpose

- Not end up promoting or favoring any set of religious beliefs

- Not overly involve the government with religion

4.What is the Establishment Clause?

-Keeps government from promoting religion in any way. Government may not give financial support to any religion.

 

5.Can my teacher start the day or a meeting with a religious prayer?

-No, prayers, scriptural readings and loudspeaker devotionals violate the first amendment because they promote religion.

 

6.Is it constitutional to teach religion in public schools?

-No, because the schools are run by the government. They can't promote religious beliefs or practice as part of the curriculum.

 

Combating Trafficking in Persons CTIP

Traffickers exploit people who are vulnerable because of _______.
-All of the Above

Which of the following is an appropriate action if you come across a trafficking in persons violation?

-Contact the Department of Defense Inspector General (IG) at 1-800-424-9098

The President's 2012 Executive Order 13627 on trafficking in persons strengthened the government's zero tolerance policy by addressing which of the following groups?

-Federal contractors and subcontractors

Sex traffickers are most likely to take advantage of individuals in which of the following locations? Select all that apply.

-Massage parlors and spas

-Dance clubs, strip clubs, and bars

Trafficking in persons consists of which of the following? Select all that apply.

-Sex trafficking

-Labor trafficking

Which of the following items most likely indicates a trafficking in persons situation?

-Withheld identification document

The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year 2013 prohibits contractors from performing which of the following actions?

-Confiscating identity documents

-Failing to meet housing and safety standards of the host country 

-Offering employment using fraudulent or misleading recruiting practices

Labor traffickers are most likely to take advantage of employees in which of the following professions?

-Janitorial services, hospitality industry

Which of the following most likely indicates a trafficking in persons situation?

-A and B

The Trafficking Victims Protection Reauthorization Act (TVPRA) 2013 does which of the following?

-All of the above

Force Protection Questions and Answers

This article provides all the questions and answers for Force Protection.

What is the term used to define defensive measures used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts

-Antiterrorism

 

What does ATACSUM stand for

-Antiterrorist Alert Center Summary

 

What is the geographical area associated with a combatant command within which a combatant commander has authority to plan and conduct operations

-AOR

 

Who is the point of contact directly responsible to the CO for all matters dealing with AT and FP

-ATO

 

Within their jurisdictions, who enforces port safety, security, and marine environmental protection regulations

-Captain of the Port

 

What are offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, and respond to terrorism

-Counterterrorism

 

What are measures taken to anticipate, prevent, resolve, and contain a terrorist threat

-Crisis Management

 

A person held as a pledge that certain terms or agreements will be kept is known as a

-Hostage

 

What is the term for a nation that receives the forces of Allied nations to be located on, operate in, and transit through its territory

-Host nation

 

A device paced or fabricated in an improvised manner incorporating destructive, lethal, noxious, pyrotechnic, or incendiary chemicals designed to destroy, incapacitate, harass, or distract is known as an

-IED

 

What is a designated point close to an incident where crisis management forces will rendezvous and establish control capability before initiating a tactical reaction

-Incident Control Point

 

What is the term for the first unit, usually military police, on the scene of a terrorist incident

-Initial Response Force

 

A member of a political party who rebels against established leadership is known as an

-Insurgent

 

What is consequence management

-Interagency services and emergency response force actions essential to mitigate and recover from damage, loss, hardship, or suffering

 

Awareness training which is provided to all DoD personnel accessions during initial training

-Level 1 AT training

 

What level of AT training is designed to provide training for personnel who are designated to serve as AT advisors to the commander and provided level I instruction for coded billets

-Level 2 AT training

 

What is the term for operations that encompass the use of military capabilities across the range of military operations short of war

-Military Operations other than War

 

Who initiates a BLUE DART message

-Navy Antiterrorist Alert Center

 

What is meant by the term deterrence

-Prevention form action by fear of the consequences

 

What are random, multiple security measures that when activated serve to disguise the actual security procedures in effect and deny the terrorist surveillance team an opportunity to predict security actions

-Random Antiterrorism Measures

 

The identification and assessments of hazards are known as

-Risk Assessment

 

What term is given to the process by which decision makers reduce or offset risk

-Risk Management

 

What type of agreement defines the legal position of a visiting military force deployed in the territory of a friendly state

-SOFA

 

What is SROE

-Standing Rules of Engagement

 

The continual process of compiling and examining all available information concerning the potential terrorist activities by terrorist groups is called

-Threat assessment

 

What is an intelligence threat assessment of the level of terrorist threat faced by US personnel and interests in a foreign country

-Threat Level

 

What is a BLUE DART Message

-A time sensitive terrorist incident notification message

 

CISA Complete Questions and Answers

An accuracy measure for a biometric system is:

-false-acceptance rate (FAR).

 

 

After reviewing its business processes, a large organization is deploying a new web application based on a Voice-over Internet Protocol (VoIP) technology. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate approach for implementing access control that will facilitate security management of the VoIP web application?

-Role-based access control (RBAC)

 

 

The BEST overall quantitative measure of the performance of biometric control devices is:

-equal-error rate (EER).

 

 

 

A consulting firm has created a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) site for the purpose of receiving financial data and has communicated the site's address, user ID and password to the financial services company in separate email messages. The company is to transmit its data to the FTP site after manually encrypting the data. The IS auditor's GREATEST concern with this process is that:

-the users may not remember to manually encrypt the data before transmission.

 

 

A data center has a badge-entry system. Which of the following is MOST important to protect the computing assets in the center?

-A process for promptly deactivating lost or stolen badges exists.

 

 

During an audit, the IS auditor notes that the application developer also performs quality assurance testing on a particular application. Which of the following should the IS auditor do?

-Report the identified condition.

 

 

During an IS risk assessment of a healthcare organization regarding protected healthcare information (PHI), an IS auditor interviews IS management. Which of the following findings from the interviews would be of MOST concern to the IS auditor?

-Staff have to type "[PHI]" in the subject field of email messages to be encrypted.

 

 

During the review of a biometrics system operation, an IS auditor should FIRST review the stage of:

-enrollment.

 

 

Electromagnetic emissions from a terminal represent a risk because they:

-can be detected and displayed.

 

 

The FIRST step in data classification is to:

-establish ownership.

 

 

From a control perspective, the PRIMARY objective of classifying information assets is to:

-establish guidelines for the level of access controls that should be assigned.

 

 

A hard disk containing confidential data was damaged beyond repair. What should be done to the hard disk to prevent access to the data residing on it?

-Physically destroy the hard disk.

 

A hotel has placed a PC in the lobby to provide guests with Internet access. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk for identity theft?

-Session time out is not activated.

.

 

 

If inadequate, which of the following would be the MOST likely contributor to a denial-of-service (DoS) attack?

-Router configuration and rules

 

 

The implementation of access controls FIRST requires:

-an inventory of IS resources.

An IS audit department is considering implementing continuous auditing techniques for a multinational retail enterprise that processes a large volume of transactions per day. A PRIMARY benefit of continuous auditing is that:

 -fraud can be detected more quickly.

 

 

An IS auditor discovers a potential material finding. The BEST course of action is to:

 -perform additional testing.

 

 

An IS auditor has been asked to look at past projects to determine how future projects can better meet business requirements. With which of the following would the auditors MOST likely consult?

 -Project sponsors

 

 

An IS auditor inspected a windowless room containing phone switching and networking equipment and documentation binders. The room was equipped with two handheld fire extinguishers—one filled with carbon dioxide (CO2), the other filled with halon. Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority in the IS auditor's report?

 -Both fire suppression systems present a risk of suffocation when used in a closed room.

 

 

An IS auditor is comparing equipment in production with inventory records. This type of testing is an example of:

 -substantive testing.

 

 

An IS auditor is determining the appropriate sample size for testing the existence of program change approvals. Previous audits did not indicate any exceptions, and management has confirmed that no exceptions have been reported for the review period. In this context, the IS auditor can adopt a:

 -lower confidence coefficient, resulting in a smaller sample size.

 

 

An IS auditor is reviewing a monthly accounts payable transaction register using audit software. For what purpose would the auditor be interested in using a check digit?

 -To detect data transposition errors

 

 

An IS auditor is reviewing a project for the implementation of a mission-critical system and notes that, instead of parallel implementation, the team opted for an immediate cutover to the new system. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

 -The implementation phase of the project has no backout plan.

 

 

An IS auditor is reviewing a project risk assessment and notices that the overall risk level is high due to confidentiality requirements. Which of the following types of risk is normally high due to the number of users and business areas the project may affect?

 -Inherent risk

 

 

An IS auditor is reviewing risk and controls of a bank wire transfer system. To ensure that the bank's financial risk is properly addressed, the IS auditor will most likely review which of the following?

 -Wire transfer procedures

 

 

An IS auditor is reviewing the physical security measures of an organization. Regarding the access card system, the IS auditor should be MOST concerned that:

 -nonpersonalized access cards are given to the cleaning staff, who use a sign-in sheet but show no proof of identity.

 

 

An IS auditor notes that daily reconciliation of visitor access card inventory is not carried out as mandated. During testing, the IS auditor did not find that access cards were missing. In this context, the IS auditor should:

 -report the lack of daily reconciliation as an exception.

 

 

An IS auditor notes that failed login attempts to a core financial system are automatically logged and the logs are retained for a year by the organization. The IS auditor should conclude that this is:

-not an adequate control.

 

 

The IS auditor observes that the latest security-related software patches for a mission-critical system were released two months ago, but IT personnel have not yet installed the patches. The IS auditor should:

 -review the patch management policy and determine the risk associated with this condition.

An IS auditor performing a data center review for a large company discovers that the data center has a lead-acid battery room to provide power to its uninterruptable power supply (UPS) during short-term outages and a diesel generator to provide long-term power backup. Which of the following items would cause the IS auditor the GREATEST concern?

 -The battery room does not contain hydrogen sensors.

 

 

An IS auditor reviewing the authentication controls of an organization should be MOST concerned if:

 -system administrators use shared login credentials.

 

 

An IS auditor reviewing the IT project management process is reviewing a feasibility study for a critical project to build a new data center. The IS auditor is MOST concerned about the fact that:

-the organizational impact of the project has not been assessed.

 

 

An IS auditor reviewing the process to monitor access logs wishes to evaluate the manual log review process. Which of the following audit techniques would the auditor MOST likely employ to fulfill this purpose?

 -Walk-through

 

 

The MOST effective biometric control system is the one:

 -which has the lowest EER.

 

 

The MOST likely explanation for a successful social engineering attack is:

 -that people make judgment errors.

 

 

A new business application requires deviation from the standard configuration of the operating system (OS). What activity should the IS auditor recommend to the security manager as a FIRST response?

 -Assessment of the risk and identification of compensating controls

 

An organization bought a new system to integrate its human resources (HR) and payroll systems. Which of the following tests ensures that the new system can operate successfully with existing systems?

 -Sociability testing

 

 

An organization has created a policy that defines the types of web sites that users are forbidden to access. What is the MOST effective technology to enforce this policy?

 -Web content filter

 

 

An organization has established a guest network for visitor access. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor?

 -The guest network is not segregated from the production network.

 

 

An organization is proposing to establish a wireless local area network (WLAN). Management asks the IS auditor to recommend security controls for the WLAN. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate recommendation?

-Physically secure wireless access points to prevent tampering.

 

 

An organization provides information to its supply chain partners and customers through an extranet infrastructure. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the firewall security architecture?

-The firewall is placed on top of the commercial operating system with all default installation options.

 

 

An organization with a history of strong internal controls allows for the use of universal serial bus (USB) drives to transfer data between offices. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of these devices?

 -Theft of the devices

 

 

An organization with extremely high security requirements is evaluating the effectiveness of biometric systems. Which of the following performance indicators is MOST important?

 -False-acceptance rate (FAR)

 

 

The PRIMARY purpose of a postimplementation review is to ascertain that:

 -project objectives have been met.

 

 

The project steering committee is ultimately responsible for:

-project deliverables, costs and timetables.

 

 

The purpose of a mantrap controlling access to a computer facility is PRIMARILY to:

 -prevent piggybacking.

 

 

The responsibility for authorizing access to a business application system belongs to the:

 -data owner.

 

The responsibility for authorizing access to application data should be with the:

-data owner.

 

Results of a postimplementation review indicate that only 75 percent of the users can log in to the application concurrently. Which of the following could have BEST discovered the identified weakness of the application?

-Load testing

 

The risk of dumpster diving is BEST mitigated by:

 -implementing security awareness training.

 

 

The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol addresses the confidentiality of a message through:

 -symmetric encryption.

 

 

There is a concern that the risk of unauthorized access may increase after implementing a single sign-on (SSO) process. To prevent unauthorized access, the MOST important action is to:

 -mandate a strong password policy.

 

Users are issued security tokens to be used in combination with a personal identification number (PIN) to access the corporate virtual private network (VPN). Regarding the PIN, what is the MOST important rule to be included in a security policy?

 -Users should never write down their PIN.

 

 

Value delivery from IT to the business is MOST effectively achieved by:

 -aligning the IT strategy with the enterprise strategy.

 

 

What is a risk associated with attempting to control physical access to sensitive areas such as computer rooms using card keys or locks?

 -Unauthorized individuals wait for controlled doors to open and walk in behind those authorized.

 

 

What is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk of a phishing attack?

-User education

 

 

What is the MAJOR benefit of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) over a traditional audit?

-It detects risk sooner.

 

 

When auditing security for a data center, an IS auditor should look for the presence of a voltage regulator to ensure that the:

-hardware is protected against power surges.

 

 

When conducting a penetration test of an IT system, an organization should be MOST concerned with:

-restoring all systems to the original state.

 

When performing a postimplementation review of a software development project for a highly secure application, it is MOST important to confirm that:

-business requirements were met.

 

 

When reviewing the procedures for the disposal of computers, which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for the IS auditor?

-All files and folders on hard disks are separately deleted, and the hard disks are formatted before leaving the organization.

 

 

Which of the following BEST encrypts data on mobile devices?

-Elliptical curve cryptography (ECC)

 

 

Which of the following BEST ensures that business requirements are met prior to implementation?

-User acceptance testing (UAT)

 

 

Which of the following BEST ensures that users have uninterrupted access to a critical, heavily utilized web-based application?

-Load balancing

 

 

Which of the following BEST ensures uninterrupted operations in an organization with IT operation centers in several countries?

-Employee training on the business continuity plan (BCP)

 

 

Which of the following BEST helps ensure that deviations from the project plan are identified?

-Project performance criteria

 

 

Which of the following BEST helps prioritize the recovery of IT assets when planning for a disaster?

-Business impact analysis (BIA)

 

 

Which of the following can be used to help ensure confidentiality of transmitted data? Encrypting the:

-session key with the receiver's public key.

 

 

Which of the following does a lack of adequate controls represent?

-A vulnerability

 

 

Which of the following environmental controls is appropriate to protect computer equipment against short-term reductions in electrical power?

-Power line conditioners

 

 

Which of the following exposures associated with the spooling of sensitive reports for offline printing should an IS auditor consider to be the MOST serious?

-Unauthorized report copies can be printed.

 

Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of embedding an audit module while developing online application systems?

-To collect evidence while transactions are processed

 

 

Which of the following is in the BEST position to approve changes to the audit charter?

-Audit committee

 

 

Which of the following is MOST important when an operating system (OS) patch is to be applied to a production environment?

-Approval from the information asset owner

 

 

Which of the following is the BEST indicator that a newly developed system will be used after it is in production?

-User acceptance testing (UAT)

 

 

Which of the following is the BEST method of controlling scope creep in a system development project?

-Establishing a software baseline

 

 

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure that critical IT system failures do not recur?

-Perform root cause analysis.

 

 

Which of the following is the BEST reference for an IS auditor to determine a vendor's ability to meet service level agreement (SLA) requirements for a critical IT security service?

-Agreed-on key performance metrics

 

 

Which of the following is the BEST way for an IS auditor to determine the effectiveness of a security awareness and training program?

-Interview a sample of employees.

 

 

Which of the following is the BEST way to satisfy a two-factor user authentication?

-A smart card requiring the user's personal identification number (PIN)

 

 

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of peer-to-peer computing?

-Data leakage

 

Which of the following is the MAIN reason an organization should have an incident response plan? The plan helps to:

-minimize the impact of an adverse event.

 

 

Which of the following is the MOST effective control over visitor access to a data center?

-Visitors are escorted.

 

 

Which of the following is the MOST effective method for disposing of magnetic media that contains confidential information?

-Destroying

 

 

Which of the following is the MOST efficient strategy for the backup of large quantities of mission-critical data when the systems need to be online to take sales orders 24 hours a day?

-Implementing a fault-tolerant disk-to-disk backup solution

 

 

Which of the following is the MOST important critical success factor (CSF) of implementing a risk-based approach to the IT system life cycle?

-Adequate involvement of stakeholders

 

 

Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration to an organization that wants to reduce its IS infrastructure by using servers provided by a platform as a service (PaaS) vendor?

-Review the need for encryption of stored and transmitted application data.

 

 

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization implements an emergency change to an application using the emergency change control process?

-There is a high probability of a significant impact on operations.

 

 

Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of single factor personal identification?

-Iris scan

 

 

Which of the following is the MOST reliable sender authentication method?

-Digital certificates

 

 

Which of the following is the responsibility of information asset owners?

-Assignment of criticality levels to data

 

 

Which of the following methods BEST mitigates the risk of disclosing confidential information through the use of social networking sites?

-Providing security awareness training

 

 

Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire in a data center is the MOST effective and environmentally friendly?

-Dry-pipe sprinklers

 

 

Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance for database password encryption?

-Advanced encryption standard (AES)

 

 

Which of the following should the IS auditor review to ensure that servers are optimally configured to support processing requirements?

-Server utilization data

 

Which of the following software testing methods provides the BEST feedback on how software will perform in the live environment?

-Beta testing

 

 

Which of the following would be BEST prevented by a raised floor in the computer machine room?

-Damage of wires around computers and servers

 

While auditing an e-commerce architecture, an IS auditor notes that customer master data are stored on the web server for six months after the transaction date and then purged due to inactivity. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern for the IS auditor?

-Confidentiality of customer data

 

 

Why does an audit manager review the staff's audit papers, even when the IS auditors have many years of experience??

  • Professional standards

 

 

Siprnet Security Annual Refresher Training JKO

SIPRNET ANSWERS PRETEST
Which if the following methods is not authorized for destroying classified information
Overlaying


Cyber commands are large, capable, and powerful organizations, but our collective security really begins with what?
Your personal vigilance, attention, and adherence to our security standards and procedures


Who maintains the security clearance access roster for the command
The command security manager


You are authorized to share your token pin with other personnel since it's not a password
F

Annual siprnet security refresher training is conducted solely to eliminate minor security violations
F

What does siprnet stand for
Secret internet protocol network

What army regulation contains both the army policy for handling the unauthorised disclosure of classified information and other security incidents, and general guidance or "how to" for commanders?
AR 380-5

Which if the following statements are true concerning protecting classified information in the workplace
Work materials such as drafts and worksheets

If you are an officer, senior non commissioned officer, senior army civilian
False

What is the form number for the courier identification card that is used to identify personnel that are authorized to carry classified military information
DD-2501

WHY do we conduct siprnet annual training
all EXCEPT required by army/dod policy

What is the secret internet protocol router network?
A secure encrypted network authorized to process classified military information (CMI) up to, and including U.S. Secret

CMI is the acronym for categorized military information
F

Which of the following choices represent common SIPRNET-related security violations
All of the above

The person appointed to conduct the preliminary inquiry should not have been previously involved, directly or indirectly, in the incident and must have the appropriate security clearance.
T

Siprnet tokens contain three individual public key infrastructure certificates. The certificates are used for all of the following actions except what?
Gaining access through an entry control point

What is the data transfer across security domains known as?
Spillage

A siprnet user must have which of the following requirements prior to accessing the siprnet system?
All of the above

Siprnet removable hard drives may be stored in a fireproof, keyed file cabinet
F

Annual Opsec Awareness Training 2018

1.Operation Security (OPSEC) as a methodology was developed during which US conflict?
a.A. Vietnam War

2.(True or False) OPSEC is a process that was designed to address inherent vulnerabilities for detecting indicators of friendly activities and applying appropriate shift countermeasures to ensure mission compliance.
a.True


3.OPSEC focuses heavily on the control and release of _____________?
d.Sensitive and Unclassified

4.Airmen should solicit the advice of their _______, _______, ________ and _________ when publicly posting or publishing work-related information to internet-based capabilities.
d.All of the above

5.(True or False) All 59 MDW Personnel must review and be familiar with their Commander’s OPSEC Policy Letter and Critical Information & Indicators List.
a.True

6.____________ is the condition achieved by the denial of critical information and indicators to adversaries. Describes which term listed below?
b.Essential Secrecy


7.Think before you post, watch what you say, and using technology to ensure privacy (passwords and shredding) are “Best Practice” examples of?
c.OPERATION SECURITY


8.Policy Letters and Critical Information and Indicators List (CIIL) are reviewed and may be updated ___________.
a.Annually

9.(True or False) Publicly disseminate, or publish photographs displaying critical information. - Examples include but are not limited to: Improvised Explosive Device strikes, battle scenes, casualties, destroyed or damaged equipment, personnel killed in action (both friendly and adversary), and the protective measures of military facilities.
b.False



10.(True or False) Actively encourage others (including family members and family readiness groups) to protect critical information and indicators.
a.True

11.IS hacked numerous social media accounts associated with the DoD, group that claimed attack was the “__________.”
c.Cyber-Caliphate

12.(True or False) Islamic State utilizes a social media and propaganda videos to include beheadings and documentaries in an attempt to appeal to Westerners to join the fight for Jihad
.a.True

13.(True or False) OPSEC does not support planning, preparation, execution, and post execution phases of any activity, operation or program across the entire spectrum of military action and in any operational environment.
b.False

14.Who are the designated points of contact for all OPSEC program updates, current CIIL and Commander’s Policy Letters?
d.Both B and C

15.Where is the 59 MDW OPSEC Policy Letter and CIIL located?
a.59 MDW SharePoint (Wing Plans)

16.(True or False) Open Source Intelligence is intelligence collected from publicly available sources. In the Intelligence Community, the term “open” refers to over, publicly available sources
.a.True

17.Which of the following choices listed below mitigate Open Source Intelligence issues?
d.All of the above

18.OPSEC is the security practice that complements the traditional security disciplines _______, _______, ________ and ________and is a critical element of any comprehensive security program.
d.All of the above

19.“If I am able to determine the enemy’s dispositions while at the same time I conceal my own, then I can concentrate and he must divide.” Who said the famous quote?
c.Sun Tzu

20.Who is your current 59th Medical Wing OSPEC Program and Signature Management Office?
d.All of the above

OPSEC

2) Understanding that protection of sensitive unclassified information is: 

The responsibility of only the OPSEC Program Managers

***** The responsibility of all persons, including civilians and contractors

The responsibility of Contractors

The responsibility of Military members

The responsibility of Military and Government Civilians


5) OPSEC is concerned with: 
The daily administrative activities associated with military operations.

Identifying and controlling classified information.
Identifying and controlling classified and unclassified information.
Controlling the operations of daily activities.

****** Identifying, controlling, and protecting unclassified information that is associated with specific military operations and activities.



7) Where is the CIL located? 
In the EUCOM J2/Intelligence Directorate.
On the EUCOM NIPR and SIPR homepages and accessed via the OPSEC ICON.
On the wall of the EUCOM J3/Joint Operations Center.
On both the NIPR and SIPR desktops via the OPSEC ICON
******** On NIRP and SIPR desktops and on the EUCOM NIPR and SIPR homepages and accessed via the OPSEC ICON.
________________________________________
8) What is the CIL? 
None of the answers are correct.

The Consolidated Intelligence Listing.

The Center for Information at Langley.

The Classification of Intelligence List. 

****** The Critical Information List.

________________________________________
________________________________________
10) OPSEC countermeasures can be used to: 
Assist in the development of daily support to secure all unclassified information.

***** Prevent the adversary from detecting an indicator and from exploiting a vulnerability.

Prevent the adversary from detecting an indicator.
Assist in the identification of OPSEC vulnerabilities.

Prevent the adversary from exploiting a vulnerability.





11) OPSEC is: 
A COMSEC function and not a security function.
****** An operations function, not a security function.
A security function not an operations function.
None of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

________________________________________
12) The Joint COMSEC Monitoring Activity provides OPSEC assistance by: 
****** Monitoring unclassified government telephones and monitoring NIPR email traffic.

Monitoring communications only for specific named operations.

Monitoring unclassified government telephones.

Monitoring NIPR email traffic.

Monitoring of COMMAND SECURITY (COMSEC) processes and procedures.



13) Operations Security (OPSEC) defines Critical Information as: 


Classified information critical to the development of operational plans.


Information needed by NATO forces in order to coordinate coalition and multinational operations.

Classified information critical to the development of all military activities


All answers are correct.


****** Specific facts about friendly intentions, capabilities, and activities needed by adversaries to plan and act effectively against friendly mission accomplishment.

________________________________________

2) The purpose of OPSEC is to: 

Inform all members of the military the dangers associated with improper handling of operational plans.
Increase the amount of time required to develop a CONOP or standing plan.
Prevent the adversary from gaining access to classified information.

****** Reduce the vulnerability of US and multinational forces from successful adversary exploitation of critical information.
All answers apply.

DTS Travel Policy

What is not true about DoD travel policy?
An AO can approve payment for items not addressed by the JTR.



When the AO approves a rental car for the traveler's use at the TDY location, which of the following is not a valid use of that official rental car?
Travel to visit relatives on non-duty days



What is not true about booking official flights?
You should always try to select the least expensive flight.


What is one of the advantages of the GSA City Pair flights?
Discounted, capacity-controlled seats are available on every flight.

Which of the following statements about using a POV on official travel is true?
-If official travelers ride together, only the traveler paying the vehicle operating expenses can claim a mileage allowance.





All of the following individuals are going TDY to U.S. installations. The AO can direct most of them to use Government quarters or privatized lodging, but which individual is not required to stay in either Government quarters or privatized lodging?
A DoD civilian employee at a non-ILPP location


Which of the following is not included in the per diem rate when traveling in CONUS?
Lodging tax


A uniformed member is TDY to a U.S. installation, will be staying in Government quarters, and has all three meals available in a Government dining facility. Which meal rate will apply to the traveler?
Government Meal Rate



Which statement is not true about receipts?
You must supply receipts for all trip expenses you claimed on the voucher.



Which of the following statements is true?
The JTR must mention an item in order for the AO to approve you to receive reimbursement for it.

JS-US013 Joint Staff Equal Opportunity Policy Basic Training - (1 hr) (PRE-TEST) on JKO

1) What is the minimum number of days for an informal complaint to be resolved? (Equal Opportunity Complaint Process, Page 2) 


Informal complaints are not subject to timeline suspense (correct)


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------


2) What is maximum number of days to submit a formal complaint? (Equal Opportunity Complaint Process, Page 6) 

60 (correct)


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3) Which of the following terms is described as an unreasonable negative attitude, judgment, or opinion toward others because of their membership in a particular group? (Equal Opportunity Terms and Definitions, Page 4) 

Prejudice (correct)


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4) True or False. Bystanders might be subordinate or senior to the person whose comment or behavior warrants reaction. (Bystander Intervention, Page 1) 

True (correct)



--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

5) Select all that apply. The DoD EO policy was established to provide equal opportunity and treatment for all Service members, civilian employees, and their families without regard to which of the following? (Equal Opportunity within the DoD, Page 4) 

Gender (correct)
National origin (correct)
Race (correct)
Religion (correct)
Color (correct)

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

6) Which of the following are traits of leadership responsibility? Select all that apply. (Equal Opportunity within the DoD, Page 4) 
Actively seek to identify discriminatory practices early on, and start actions to remove the contributing factors (correct) 
Ensure that all military members receive EO training (correct)
Ensure that unit personnel are aware of complaint processing procedures (correct)
Ensure that EO policies are publicized and enforced (correct) 
Counsel subordinates on EO roles and responsibilities (correct)

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

7) Which of the following alternatives best describes the term "Racism"? (Equal Opportunity Terms and Definitions, Page 8) 

Attitude, belief, behavior, or institutional arrangement that favors one race or ethnic group over another (correct)

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

8) True or False. A bystander is anyone who sees or otherwise becomes aware of behavior that appears worthy of comment or action. (Bystander Intervention, Page 1) 

True (correct)

Level 1 AT Awareness

1) IEDs may come in many forms and may be camouflaged to blend in to the surrounding environment. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3)

True

2) What is NOT a physical security measure for your home? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2)

Hiding a key outside to ensure family members can get in if they lose their keys. 


3) Which one of the following is NOT an early indicator of a potential insider threat? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3)

A reasonable disagreement with a US Government policy 


4) Persons who have been given access to an installation can be counted on to be of no threat. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3)

False


5) Force Protection Condition DELTA means that your base is at which one of the following? (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 10)

The most increased level of protection 

6) True or False: The initial moments of a hostage taking incident can be extremely dangerous. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2)

True

7) True or False: The ticketing area is more secure than the area beyond the security check point. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3)

False

8) Keeping a well-maintained vehicle is considered a "best practice" from both a security and safety perspective. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2)

True


9) True or False: In the event of a skyjacking, you should immediately attempt to subdue the skyjackers. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4)

False

10) True or False: Room invasions are a significant security issue for hotels located in CONUS. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1)

True


11) True or False: Everyone on an installation has shared responsibility for security. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2)

True



12) Knowing indicators of an unstable person can allow you to identify a potential insider threat before an incident. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4)

True


13) Select all factors that are ways in which you might become the victim of a terrorist attack. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 4)

Predictability
Opportunity
Location
Association

14) Electronic audio and video devices are never used by terrorists for surveillance purposes. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4)

False

15) True or False: Internet acquaintances can pose a security threat and should be carefully monitored. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 5)

True


16) True or False: Security is a team effort. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 6)

True


17) True or False: State Department Travel Warnings should be consulted prior to taking trips across the US-Mexican border. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2)

True


18) True or False: Surveillance can be performed through either stationary or mobile means. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3)

True


19) True or False: Terrorists usually avoid tourist locations since they are not DOD-related. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1)

False


20) Which one of these is a possible indicator of a suspicious letter or package? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4)

Misspellings of common words 


21) True or False: In an active shooter incident involving firearms you should immediately lie on the ground. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2)

False


22) Alerts from the National Terrorism Advisory System apply only to the United States and its possessions. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 12)

True


23) From the following choices, select the factors you should consider to understand the threat in your environment. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 3)

All are correct

24) True or False: From a security perspective, the best rooms are directly next to emergency exits. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3)

False

25) True or False: When possible, it is best to always travel with a cell phone. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2)

True


26) If you identify a possible surveillance attempt you should try to handle the situation yourself. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2)

False


27) Which of the following is NOT a recommended response to an active shooter incident? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Pages 3 and 4)

Provide instructions to arriving emergency response personnel 


28) True or False: Reasons for acquiring hostages include publicity, use as a bargaining chip while executing other crimes, the forcing of political concessions, and ransom. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1)

True

1) True or False: When possible, it is best to always travel with a cell phone. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective25] 
False
True (correct)


2) True or False: In the event of a skyjacking, you should immediately attempt to subdue the skyjackers. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) [objective24] 
False (correct)
True


3) True or False: The ticketing area is more secure than the area beyond the security check point. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective12] 
False (correct)
True


4) Keeping a well-maintained vehicle is considered a "best practice" from both a security and safety perspective. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective13] 
False
True (correct)


5) True or False: Internet acquaintances can pose a security threat and should be carefully monitored. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 5) [objective22] 
True (correct)
False


6) Force Protection Condition DELTA means that your base is at which one of the following? (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 10) [objective3] 

The most increased level of protection (correct)


7) Which of the following is NOT a recommended response to an active shooter incident? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Pages 3 and 4) [objective9] 
Look for a place to hide or an area that can be barricaded
Look for possible escape routes from the area
Find something solid to dive behind
Provide instructions to arriving emergency response personnel (correct)
If necessary, actively resist the perpetrator


8) From an antiterrorism perspective, espionage and security negligence are considered insider threats. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective8] 
False
True (correct)


9) True or False: State Department Travel Warnings should be consulted prior to taking trips across the US-Mexican border. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective11] 
False
True (correct)


10) True or False: Terrorists usually avoid tourist locations since they are not DOD-related. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1)
True
False (correct)


11) What is NOT a physical security measure for your home? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective10] 
Hiding a key outside to ensure family members can get in if they lose their keys. (correct)
Monitoring Internet acquaintances of all family members.
Confirming that a cleaning company is reliable and licensed.
Changing locks to ensure key control.
Having good relations with neighbors and looking out for each other.


12) Select all factors that are ways in which you might become the victim of a terrorist attack. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 4) [objective2] 
Predictability (correct)
Association (correct)
Location (correct)
Opportunity (correct)


13) Alerts from the National Terrorism Advisory System apply only to the United States and its possessions. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 12) [objective4] 
False
True (correct)


14) What is NOT a terrorist method of surveillance? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective6] 
Stationary surveillance
Moving surveillance
Technical surveillance
Breaking and entering to steal valuables (correct)
Casual questioning


15) True or False: The initial moments of a hostage taking incident can be extremely dangerous. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective27] 
False
True (correct)


16) Which of the following is NOT an Antiterrorism Level I theme? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective5] 
Report and Respond
Counter-surveillance (correct)
Don't be a Target
Be Vigilant
Anticipate


17) Persons who have been given access to an installation can be counted on to be of no threat. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective7] 
True
False (correct)


18) True or False: Room invasions are a significant security issue for hotels located in CONUS. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1) [objective26] 
True (correct)
False


19) True or False: In an active shooter incident involving firearms you should immediately lie on the ground. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective21] 
True
False (correct)


20) True or False: From a security perspective, the best rooms are directly next to emergency exits. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective14] 
False (correct)
True


21) From the following choices, select the factors you should consider to understand the threat in your environment. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 3) [objective1] 
Will local citizens warn Americans about terrorist groups? (correct)
How active are terrorist groups? (correct)
Are terrorist groups predictable? (correct)
How sophisticated are terrorist groups? (correct)
Do terrorist groups attack Americans? (correct)
Are terrorist groups in the area? (correct)
Are terrorist groups violent? (correct)
What tactics and weapons are used by terrorist groups? (correct)


22) True or False: Everyone on an installation has shared responsibility for security. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective19] 
False
True (correct)


23) IEDs may come in many forms and may be camouflaged to blend in to the surrounding environment. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective28] 
True (correct)
False


24) Knowing indicators of an unstable person can allow you to identify a potential insider threat before an incident. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) [objective20] 
False
True (correct)


25) What should you NOT do during a hostage rescue attempt? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) [objective15] 
Remain still and low to the ground
Expect to be handcuffed and detained by hostage rescue team
Try to assist hostage rescue team (correct)
Encourage others around you to remain calm
Follow instructions of hostage rescue team


26) Which one of these is a possible indicator of a suspicious letter or package? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) [objective16] 
Misspellings of common words (correct)
Correct amount of postage
Mailing address providing a complete and correct name
Evenly distributed and well balanced parcel
A return address that matches the postmark


27) True or False: Security is a team effort. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 6) [objective17] 
False
True (correct)


28) True or False: Surveillance can be performed through either stationary or mobile means. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective18] 
False
True (correct)

AFTP Antiterrorism Level 1 Pre-Test

1) True or False: When possible, it is best to always travel with a cell phone. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective25] 



False


True (correct)


________________________________________

2) True or False: In the event of a skyjacking, you should immediately attempt to subdue the skyjackers. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) [objective24] 


False (correct)

True

________________________________________
3) True or False: The ticketing area is more secure than the area beyond the security check point. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective12] 

False (correct)

True

________________________________________
4) Keeping a well-maintained vehicle is considered a "best practice" from both a security and safety perspective. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective13] 

False

True (correct)

________________________________________
5) True or False: Internet acquaintances can pose a security threat and should be carefully monitored. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 5) [objective22] 

True (correct)

False

________________________________________
6) Force Protection Condition DELTA means that your base is at which one of the following? (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 10) [objective3] 

The least increased level of protection

The most increased level of protection (correct)

A medium level of protection 

________________________________________
7) Which of the following is NOT a recommended response to an active shooter incident? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Pages 3 and 4) [objective9] 

Look for a place to hide or an area that can be barricaded

Look for possible escape routes from the area

Find something solid to dive behind

Provide instructions to arriving emergency response personnel (correct)

If necessary, actively resist the perpetrator

________________________________________
8) Which one of the following is NOT an early indicator of a potential insider threat? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective8] 

Anti-American statements asserting that US policy and authority is illegitimate

Abnormal mood swings, depression, and suicidal remarks

Aggression or threats toward co-workers

Presence of unauthorized weapons

A reasonable disagreement with a US Government policy (correct)

________________________________________
9) Which of the following have NOT been targeted or plotted against by terrorists or violent individuals? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1) [objective11] 

None of these answers (correct)

Political events

Sporting events

Places of religious association

Public infrastructure

________________________________________
10) True or False: Terrorists usually avoid tourist locations since they are not DOD-related. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1) 
True

False (correct)

________________________________________
11) Home security can be improved with self-help measures like changing locks, securing windows, and improving outdoor lighting. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective10] 

False

True (correct)

________________________________________
12) Select all factors that are ways in which you might become the victim of a terrorist attack. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 4) [objective2] [Remediation Accessed :N] 

Opportunity (correct)

Predictability (correct)

Location (correct)

Association (correct)



________________________________________
13) Alerts from the National Terrorism Advisory System apply only to the United States and its possessions. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 12) [objective4] 

True (correct)

False

________________________________________
14) Electronic audio and video devices are never used by terrorists for surveillance purposes. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) [objective6] 

True

False (correct)

________________________________________
15) True or False: The initial moments of a hostage taking incident can be extremely dangerous. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective27] 

True (correct)

False

________________________________________
16) Which of the following is NOT an Antiterrorism Level I theme? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective5] 

Report and Respond

Counter-surveillance (correct)

Don't be a Target

Be Vigilant

Anticipate

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17) Persons who have been given access to an installation can be counted on to be of no threat. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective7] 

True

False (correct)

________________________________________
18) True or False: Room invasions are a significant security issue for hotels located in CONUS. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1) [objective26] 

True (correct)

False

________________________________________
19) True or False: In an active shooter incident involving firearms you should immediately lie on the ground. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective21] 

True

False (correct)

________________________________________
20) True or False: From a security perspective, the best rooms are directly next to emergency exits. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective14] [Remediation Accessed :N] 
False (correct)

True

________________________________________
21) From the following choices, select the factors you should consider to understand the threat in your environment. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 3) [objective1] 

Are terrorist groups in the area? (correct)

How sophisticated are terrorist groups? (correct)

What tactics and weapons are used by terrorist groups? (correct)

Will local citizens warn Americans about terrorist groups? (correct)

Are terrorist groups violent? (correct)

Are terrorist groups predictable? (correct)

Do terrorist groups attack Americans? (correct)

How active are terrorist groups? (correct)

________________________________________
22) True or False: Everyone on an installation has shared responsibility for security. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective19] 

False

True (correct)

________________________________________
23) IEDs may come in many forms and may be camouflaged to blend in to the surrounding environment. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective28] 

True (correct)

False

________________________________________
24) Knowing indicators of an unstable person can allow you to identify a potential insider threat before an incident. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) [objective20] 

False

True (correct)

________________________________________
25) What should you NOT do during a hostage rescue attempt? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) [objective15] 

Remain still and low to the ground

Expect to be handcuffed and detained by hostage rescue team

Try to assist hostage rescue team (correct)

Encourage others around you to remain calm

Follow instructions of hostage rescue team

________________________________________
26) Early symptoms of a biological attack may appear the same as common illnesses. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) [objective16] 

True (correct)

False

________________________________________
27) True or False: Security is a team effort. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 6) [objective17] 

False

True (correct)

________________________________________
28) True or False: Surveillance can be performed through either stationary or mobile means. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective18] 

True (correct)

False