Characteristics Of Prokaryotic Cells

Question: What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells?
Answer: 1) they have no nuclear membrane
2) their DNA is not wound around histones
3) the cell walls are made of a chemical called peptidoglycan
4) they do not have complex membrane-bound organelles
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Question: What are some characteristics of eukaryotic cells?
Answer: 1) they have a nuclear membrane around their DNA
2) their DNA is wound around histones
3) they have complex membrane-bound organelles
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Question: What are the six shapes of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Answer: 1) coccus
2) bacillus
3) vibrio
4) spirillum
5) spirochete
6) pleomorphism
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Question: What are the five arrangements of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Answer: 1) diplo
2) strepto
3) staphylo
4) tetra
5) sarcinae
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Question: The majority of gram-positive organisms have this cell wall structure
Answer: 1) trichroic acid
2) cell membrane
3) peptidoglycan (Murien)
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Question: The majority of gram-negative organisms have this cell wall structure
Answer: 1) cell membrane
2) lipopolysaccharide (LPS) this is an endotoxin
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Question: What do chromatophores do?
Answer: Make pigment colors
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Question: What are the 5 types of flagella?
Answer: 1) Monotrichous
2) Amphitrichous
3) Lophotrichous
4) Peritrichous
5) Atrichous
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Question: What does monotrichous mean?
Answer: It is a polar cell with a single flagellum on the end of the cell
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Question: What does Amphitrichous mean?
Answer: Having a single flagellum on both ends of the cell
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Question: What does Lophotrichous means?
Answer: Has small bunches or tufts of flagella emerging from the same site
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Question: What does Peritrochous mean?
Answer: Having flagella dispersed randomly over the surface of the cell
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Question: What does Atrichous mean?
Answer: Without flagella
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Question: What is a glycocalyx?
Answer: A filamentous network of carbohydrate rich molecules that coats cells
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Question: What is a slime layer?
Answer: A diffuse unorganized layer of polysaccharides and/or proteins on the outside of some bacteria
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Question: What is a capsule?
Answer: A hardened slime layer. Most of the bacteria that cause pneumonia make a capsule
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Question: The nucleus contains this
Answer: DNA
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Question: What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells? Answer: 1) they have no nuclear membrane 2) their DNA is not wound around histones 3) the cell walls are made of a chemical called peptidoglycan 4) they do not have complex membrane-bound organelles ================================================== Question: What are some characteristics of eukaryotic cells? Answer: 1) they have a nuclear membrane around their DNA 2) their DNA is wound around histones 3) they have complex membrane-bound organelles ================================================== Question: What are the six shapes of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? Answer: 1) coccus 2) bacillus 3) vibrio 4) spirillum 5) spirochete 6) pleomorphism ================================================== Question: What are the five arrangements of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? Answer: 1) diplo 2) strepto 3) staphylo 4) tetra 5) sarcinae ================================================== Question: The majority of gram-positive organisms have this cell wall structure Answer: 1) trichroic acid 2) cell membrane 3) peptidoglycan (Murien) ================================================== Question: The majority of gram-negative organisms have this cell wall structure Answer: 1) cell membrane 2) lipopolysaccharide (LPS) this is an endotoxin ================================================== Question: What do chromatophores do? Answer: Make pigment colors ================================================== Question: What are the 5 types of flagella? Answer: 1) Monotrichous 2) Amphitrichous 3) Lophotrichous 4) Peritrichous 5) Atrichous ================================================== Question: What does monotrichous mean? Answer: It is a polar cell with a single flagellum on the end of the cell ================================================== Question: What does Amphitrichous mean? Answer: Having a single flagellum on both ends of the cell ================================================== Question: What does Lophotrichous means? Answer: Has small bunches or tufts of flagella emerging from the same site ================================================== Question: What does Peritrochous mean? Answer: Having flagella dispersed randomly over the surface of the cell ================================================== Question: What does Atrichous mean? Answer: Without flagella ================================================== Question: What is a glycocalyx? Answer: A filamentous network of carbohydrate rich molecules that coats cells ================================================== Question: What is a slime layer? Answer: A diffuse unorganized layer of polysaccharides and/or proteins on the outside of some bacteria ================================================== Question: What is a capsule? Answer: A hardened slime layer. Most of the bacteria that cause pneumonia make a capsule ================================================== Question: The nucleus contains this Answer: DNA ==================================================

Characteristics Of Poetry

Question: Rhyme
Answer: * Some poems use rhyming words to create a certain effect.

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Question: Rhythm
Answer: * Sometimes poets use repetition of sounds or patterns to create a musical effect in their poems.
*Rhythm can be created by using the same number of words or syllables in each line of a poem.
* Rhythm can be described as the beat of the poem.
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Question: Figurative Language
Answer: * Figurative language is often found in poetry. The following types of figurative language are often seen in poems.

^ The girl is like a tornado on the basketball court.
' Metaphor - Comparing two things by saying one thing actually is another thing.
^ The girl is a tornado on the basketball court.
' Personification - Giving human characteristics to a non-living thing.
^ The autumn leaves danced across the street.
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Question: Shape
Answer: * You can tell you are reading a poem based on the way it looks. A book of poems looks different from a regular novel.
* Poems are written in stanzas. Stanzas are groups of lines within a poem that are similar in rhyme, rhythm, or style. Often, there is a break between stanzas.
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Question: Mood
Answer: * The mood of a poem is the feeling that it has. A poem can be sad, gloomy, humorous, happy, etc.
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Question: Rhyme Answer: * Some poems use rhyming wo”Question: Rhyme Answer: * Some poems use rhyming words to create a certain effect. * ”Question: Rhyme Answer: * Some poems use rhyming words to create a certain effect. * Not all poems are rhyming. Poetry that does not rhyme is called "free verse poetry." ================================================== Question: Rhythm Answer: * Sometimes poets use repetition of sounds or patterns to create a musical effect in their poems. *Rhythm can be created by using the same number of words or syllables in each line of a poem. * Rhythm can be described as the beat of the poem. ================================================== Question: Figurative Language Answer: * Figurative language is often found in poetry. The following types of figurative language are often seen in poems. ' Simile - Compares two things using "like" or "as." ^ The girl is like a tornado on the basketball court. ' Metaphor - Comparing two things by saying one thing actually is another thing. ^ The girl is a tornado on the basketball court. ' Personification - Giving human characteristics to a non-living thing. ^ The autumn leaves danced across the street. ================================================== Question: Shape Answer: * You can tell you are reading a poem based on the way it looks. A book of poems looks different from a regular novel. * Poems are written in stanzas. Stanzas are groups of lines within a poem that are similar in rhyme, rhythm, or style. Often, there is a break between stanzas. ================================================== Question: Mood Answer: * The mood of a poem is the feeling that it has. A poem can be sad, gloomy, humorous, happy, etc. ==================================================

Characteristics Of Parabolas

Question: Parabola
Answer: The general shape of the graph of a quadratic function.
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Question: Vertex
Answer: The highest or lowest point of a parabola.
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Question: Maximum
Answer: The vertex of a parabola that is the highest point.
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Question: Minimum
Answer: The vertex of a parabola that is the lowest point.
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Question: Increasing values
Answer: The part of the parabola where the y values get larger.
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Question: Decreasing values
Answer: The part of the parabola where the y values get smaller.
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Question: y - intercept of a parabola
Answer: The point where a parabola crosses the y-axis. The x coordinate is zero.
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Question: x-intercept of a parabola
Answer: The point or points where a parabola crosses the x-axis. The y coordinates are zero. Also known as ZEROS
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Question: Line of Symmetry
Answer: The vertical line that goes through the vertex of the parabola. It cuts the parabola into two mirror images of each other.
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Question: Symmetric Points of a parabola
Answer: Points on a parabola that have the same y value.
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Question: Parabola Answer: The general shape of the graph of a quadratic function. ================================================== Question: Vertex Answer: The highest or lowest point of a parabola. ================================================== Question: Maximum Answer: The vertex of a parabola that is the highest point. ================================================== Question: Minimum Answer: The vertex of a parabola that is the lowest point. ================================================== Question: Increasing values Answer: The part of the parabola where the y values get larger. ================================================== Question: Decreasing values Answer: The part of the parabola where the y values get smaller. ================================================== Question: y - intercept of a parabola Answer: The point where a parabola crosses the y-axis. The x coordinate is zero. ================================================== Question: x-intercept of a parabola Answer: The point or points where a parabola crosses the x-axis. The y coordinates are zero. Also known as ZEROS ================================================== Question: Line of Symmetry Answer: The vertical line that goes through the vertex of the parabola. It cuts the parabola into two mirror images of each other. ================================================== Question: Symmetric Points of a parabola Answer: Points on a parabola that have the same y value. ==================================================

Sphr Flashcards

Question: One of your production managers uses incentives to reward employees for meeting operational objectives. This is the best example of which of the following leadership styles?
A. Charismatic leadership
B. Transactional leadership
C. Laissez-faire leadership
D. Authoritarian leadership
Answer: B. Transactional leaders are characterized by a "this for that" style. These leaders use both rewards and discipline when necessary to accomplish organizational and departmental objectives.
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Question: Consensual romantic relationships at work represent what type of risk?
A. Intimate partner violence
B. Unlawful treatment
C. Sexual harassment
D. None, because it's consensual
Answer: C. Relationships at work, even those that are consensual, have the potential for issues in which HR will have to intervene. This includes the risk of sexual harassment should the relationship become unwanted by either party.
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Question: The international gas utility company for which you direct HR does not have an organized health and safety program for its workers. What should be your first step?
A. Focus on becoming compliant with international, federal, state, and local safety standards.
B. Identify the employees who are most at risk and begin safety efforts with them.
C. Obtain approval for a company-wide incentive program based on zero accidents or injuries.
D. Meet with the workers' compensation brokers to assess the costs of lack of a safety program.
See the answer
Answer: B. In this high-risk industry, it would be prudent for human resources to begin building a safety program for those workers who are most at risk. This effort may include data collection, incentives, and compliance efforts as part of the overall intervention strategy.
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Question: The food distribution center for which you work has seen an increase in the number of loading-dock workers reporting ankle injuries. What strategy would be most effective to reduce or eliminate the risk?
A. Require employees to wear high-top steel-toed work boots.
B. Review the injury records for patterns of unsafe behaviors.
C. Conduct a root-cause analysis with a committee made up of dock workers.
D. Ask the occupational clinic to come in and provide safety training.
Answer: C. Any time there is an increase in injuries and accidents, HR should take the time to analyze for root causes. From this, hazard abatement strategies may be developed and could include new personal protective equipment requirements or worker training.
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Question: The major Internet provider for which you are the VP of human resources has just experienced the largest customer and employee data breach in the history of the United States. In an effort to comply with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), you should first do what?
A. Evaluate the areas where the company's data is still at risk for hackers
B. Research credit monitoring services to offer affected individuals.
C. Wait to notify investors until the executive team can sell their shares of company stock.
D. Assess the depth of the data breach and notify investors as soon as is practicable.
Answer: D. When a data breach of this magnitude occurs, it is important for HR to help the company respond in accordance with governing agencies but also in a manner that protects the interests of both the company and the affected individuals.
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Question: Which of the following are examples of the physical assets that must be secured to prevent a cybersecurity attack?
A. The employees
B. The buildings
C. The workstations
D. The power lines
Answer: C. Physical assets such as workstations and servers can be tracked and monitored as part of a company's efforts to prevent cyberattacks on sensitive company and customer data.
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Question: Establishing a hierarchy of assets helps companies do what when it comes to data protection?
A. Identify priorities when it comes to building a robust data security program
B. Determine what skills in data security personnel to hire for
C. Write policies that protect critical assets
D. Purchase external layers of protections, making the data harder to breach
Answer: A. Establishing a hierarchy of assets helps a company craft an effective data security program. Building controls for these assets may include policies, practices, and the deployment of internal and external resources, but it will be difficult to know where to deploy the resources without understanding what is most at risk/important.
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Question: The hospital for which you work has hired an outside agency to staff the parking lot security posts. The guard works only at night and is unsupervised. Recently there has been a rash of attacks in the area against security guards in general. What steps should you take to protect this contingent worker from becoming a victim of workplace violence?
A. Allow him to carry his personal gun while on duty.
B. Install security cameras that are monitored from the inside.
C. Make a business case to the board of directors that this post should have two workers at all times.
D. Ask the employment agency to cover the costs of additional security recommendations.
Answer: B. In this case, a team approach may work to help minimize an act of workplace violence. Security cameras can act as a deterrent to crime. Having the cameras internally monitored increases the ability for a quick response should an event occur.
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Question: A major sandwich restaurant hires 15-year-old workers to operate a meat slicer. This may violate which of the following?
A. The Food and Drug Administration
B. Food Safety Management
C. The Fair Labor Standards Act
D. The Occupational Safety and Health Act
Answer: C. The Fair Labor Standards Act addresses more than just legal compensation; it also limits the type of work that may be done by minors. In this example, a meat slicer is considered a hazardous job and is therefore prohibited for workers between the ages of 14 and 15.
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Question: An employee has shared with her manager that she has been prescribed medicine for her bipolar disorder. Which labor laws may need to be considered on her behalf?
A. The Americans with Disabilities Act
B. The Occupational Safety and Health Act
C. The Drug-Free Workplace Act
D. Both A and B
Answer: A. Mental illnesses are generally covered under the Americans with Disabilities Act and apply to employers with 15 or more employees. This employee may need to be reasonably accommodated as a result of her disability.
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Question: A winery employs hundreds of seasonal, temporary workers that are processed through a staffing agency. Many of them will be working with hazardous chemicals. Which of the following should you do first to comply with OSHA's hazard communication standard?
A. Ask the temporary agency to provide general hazardous material-handling training.
B. Ensure that the same protections offered to regular workers are offered to temporary workers.
C. Ask the agency to come inspect the facility to ensure it is a safe work environment.
D. Communicate with the agency regarding what types of protection will be needed.
Answer: D. Both the host company and the staffing agency have responsibilities to ensure the safety of individuals who will be working with hazardous materials. Communicating with the agency allows for a coordination of effort, including the need for protection, training, and verifying that the workers are going to a safe workplace.
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Question: A software developer in the Midwest has decided to offer voluntary microchipping of their employees. The chips will be medically inserted into the individual's right hand and will allow employees to open doors, clock in, and even make purchases in the company cafeteria. What type of data is being collected?
A. Biometric
B. Personal
C. Identity
D. Medical
Answer: C. There are several different ways information can be collected, stored, and eventually utilized in a 21st-century workplace. In this example, the company is using microchips to identify employees.
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Question: Using the information from the previous question, what type of risk is the microchipping employer exposed to?
A. Identity theft
B. Privacy concerns
C. Health risks
D. All of the above
Answer: D. With implantable technology, there are several types of risk that an employer may need to take steps to minimize. The capabilities and design of the microchip must be reviewed to ensure it does not send information about an employee, unlawfully track employee movements, or cause infection or other health issues.
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Question: Which of the following mitigation efforts will improve data security?
A. Purchasing EPL insurance
B. A computer monitoring system of employee keystrokes
C. Writing a policy that prohibits the sharing of passwords
D. Not collecting the data at all
Answer: C. In risk management, employers may seek to eliminate, mitigate, or transfer the risk. An example of a mitigation effort is one that reduces—but does not eliminate—the likelihood of a data breach. For that reason, an employer policy that prohibits the sharing of employee passwords is the best answer.
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Question: In the wake of recent workplace violence episodes in the news, your executive team has requested that you put together a written plan that addresses what steps to take should an incident occur at one of your locations. You will most likely need what type of plan?
A. Disaster recovery plan
B. Incident response plan
C. Business continuity plan
D. All of the above
Answer: B. A written incident response plan can be a critical part of a company's response system should an incident of workplace violence occur. An effective plan should identify manager and employee responsibilities, first responder resources, evacuation and head count procedures, and how to coordinate any media response.
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Question: Your company has a written plan that details the manual workarounds for the company's accounting and payment systems should there be an emergency. This is an example that would be included in what type of plan?
A. Business continuity
B. Critical incident
C. Disaster recovery
D. Injury and illness
Answer: A. A business continuity plan will most likely detail an information technology (IT) response to the enterprise system of a company. This is needed to get critical business processes that are based on technology back up and running as soon as possible after an incident.
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Question: To comply with SEC rules at your place of business, you should do which of the following?
A. Link executive pay to monthly performance measures.
B. Disclose executive pay rates to all employees.
C. Publish the ratio of executive to employee pay to shareholders.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C. The SEC adopted new executive pay ratio rules that went into effect in 2017. The rules require a public company to disclose the ratio of the median of the annual total compensation of all employees to the annual total compensation of the CEO.
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Question: Which of the following statements is true about OSHA's Strategic Partnership Program (SPP)?
A. It is a coalition of employee groups and unions.
B. It is mandatory.
C. It requires top management support.
D. All of the above
Answer: A. OSHA's voluntary Strategic Partnership Program (SPP) brings together unions and employers to adopt a cohesive set of safety standards that address safety hazards in the workplace.
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Question: Of the following, which is most important when it comes to building an effective safety management program?
A. Creating a safety culture
B. Relevant policies, procedures, and rules
C. Top management support
D. Approval for personal protective equipment
Answer: C. A safety program without the support of top management has an increased chance of failing to address the unique needs of the organization. For example, if the director of HR does not wear her safety glasses in the warehouse, it is unlikely that others will follow the rules either.
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Question: A large employer with multiple facilities all across the United States has decided to raffle off a car at the end of the year. Employees will automatically get one entry for each week that they work without injury. Which of the following is the employer at risk for?
A. Tax code violation
B. Discrimination
C. Retaliation
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Safety incentive programs that reward employees who do not get injured may inadvertently retaliate against those who do get hurt. Additionally, incentive programs that are too generous may discourage reporting of injuries.
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Question: To be removed from OSHA's routine inspection list, which program should you recommend your employer join?
A. Voluntary Protection Program
B. Strategic Partnership Program
C. Alliance Program
D. Consultation Program
Answer: A. OSHA's Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) is open to employers that have an effective, well-established safety program. If the employer is accepted into the program, the employer may be removed from routine, scheduled inspection lists.
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Question: Employers have which of the following obligations with regard to international assignee protection?
A. They must carry kidnap and ransom insurance for high hazard areas.
B. They have a duty of care to take all reasonable steps to protect their expatriates.
C. They must have a written crisis management plan in place.
D. Employers have the same obligation for international assignees as they do for home country nationals.
Answer: B. Employers have a global duty of care to keep international assignees safe. This obligation may take on many forms, but it generally must account for the unique needs of employees that travel or live abroad as part of their work responsibilities.
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Question: Why might it be a good idea to work with an insurance broker if a company decides to place employees on international assignments?
A. The broker can help build crisis response plans.
B. The broker may have connections to negotiate in a crisis situation.
C. The broker may have access to international resources should a medical emergency arise.
D. All of the above
Answer: D. An employer may decide to purchase additional types of insurance to accommodate the unique needs of international employees. Brokers who provide these types of policies often have resources far beyond the administrative, including navigating the need to negotiate should an event occur and medical or emergency travel services for the employee and family members should the need arise.
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Question: Which of the following strategies would best be served by implementing an RTW program at your place of work?
A. The ability to coordinate different types of leave
B. Compliance with OSHA standards
C. The need to reduce injuries and accidents in the workplace
D. The desire to reduce the overall costs of workplace injuries
Answer: D. A return-to-work program is one that returns an injured worker back to the job in a modified capacity. Once the injured employee is working modified duty, his pay comes from payroll as opposed to his wages being part of the overall compensation claim.
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Question: Under what conditions may an injured worker's pay be reduced when accepting a modified duty assignment?
A. Only if the injured worker is temporarily stationed at a job that normally pays a lower rate
B. It depends on the laws of the state in which the injury occurred
C. Only if they are doing so for a nonretaliatory reason
D. All of the above
Answer: D. There are some cases where it is entirely reasonable for an employer to pay a temporarily injured worker a lower wage while on a modified duty assignment. Employers that adopt this strategy must take care that no retaliation is occurring and that they are not violating the laws of the states in which the employee was injured.
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Question: An injured worker has been told by his workers' compensation doctor that he is able to go back to work at full duty. The employee disagrees. What should you recommend?
A. Sending him back to a doctor of his choice for a final recommendation
B. Discussing an IME with the workers' compensation insurance
C. A referral to the company's labor attorney
D. Termination of employment if he does not return
Answer: B. An independent medical exam (IME) is a useful tool when there is a dispute about an injured worker's abilities. Often binding, it is conducted by a neutral, third-party physician.
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Question: Collective bargaining is best understood as which of the following?
A. Implied contract
B. Union responsibility
C. Employer responsibility
D. Statutory right
Answer: D. The process of collective bargaining and the resulting agreement is a right granted to employees by way of specific law. In this example, the National Labor Relations Act granted individuals the right to organize and bargain collectively through a union.
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Question: Freedom of speech, due process, and workplace safety are all examples of which of the following?
A. Employee responsibilities
B. Employee rights
C. Employment contract clauses
D. Constitutional rights
Answer: B. Employee rights can be granted by both federal and state laws. These rights are considered to be absolute and cannot be compromised by employers without penalty or bargained away in an employment contract including a collective bargaining agreement.
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Question: Which of the following agreements may employers have the most legal trouble enforcing?
A. Nonsolicitation of current employees
B. Arbitration agreements
C. Employment contracts
D. Noncompete agreements
Answer: D. Noncompete agreements are clauses or documents that prohibit a separating employee from competing with the employer in the same line of business for a specified period of time. If these agreements are overly restrictive or in a state that does not allow an employer to prevent an employee from making a living, they may prove difficult to enforce.
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Question: Under what conditions would you recommend to your employer that they adopt a nonpiracy agreement?
A. For a high-tech organization to prevent employee poaching
B. For a work environment with legally protected trade secrets
C. For companies doing business in international waters
D. Never—nonpiracy agreements are unlawful.
Answer: A. Nonpiracy agreements, in which separating employees agree to not to recruit a company's talent, can be beneficial under the right conditions. As with any of these types of agreements, however, it is best to have them reviewed by legal counsel prior to implementation.
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Question: When an employer terminates the rights of an employee for a discriminatory reason, which of the following is said to have occurred?
A. Constructive discharge
B. Wrongful discharge
C. Reduction in force
D. Discharge without cause
Answer: B. Wrongful discharge—also called wrongful termination—occurs when an employer terminates an employee for an unlawful reason such as discrimination, failing to break the law on behalf of an employer, or exercising their rights granted by law (right to vote, whistleblowing, etc.).
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Question: In the absence of an employment contract or collective bargaining agreement, when may an employee expect to only be terminated for cause?
A. If they are a protected class individual
B. If there is a progressive discipline policy in the handbook
C. If their behavior was first investigated by management
D. None of the above
Answer: D. The concept of "just cause" is that employees may expect that employment at will does not apply to them. This condition may be met only when there is an employment contract (written or implied) or when the employee is covered by a collective bargaining agreement.
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Question: An employee has been terminated for "just cause." Which of the following reasons is most likely?
A. The employee refused to forge his boss's signature on a document.
B. The employee violated the employer's anti-harassment rules.
C. The employee was late because he went to vote in the presidential election.
D. The employee was a whistleblower who filed a report of corruption that turned out to be inaccurate.
Answer: B. "Just cause" is a concept that describes an employer's justification for taking employment action. It cannot be used as a reason for termination if the employee refused to break the law or exercised a statutory right.
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Question: Augustine filed a grievance with HR because he believed that a supervisor gave Amy—Augustine's co-worker—a higher raise than Augustine received because the supervisor is trying to date Amy. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Sexual harassment
B. Distributive justice
C. Discriminatory treatment
D. Both A and B
Answer: B. An employee's perception of fair treatment is influenced by many factors. In this scenario, Augustine believes that the outcome (pay increases) was unfair.
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Question: In compulsory arbitration, which of the following conditions is nearly always included?
A. The employee exchanges the right to sue the employer.
B. An arbitrator is selected from the American Arbitration Association (AAA).
C. There is a written arbitration agreement reviewed by legal counsel.
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Employers may choose to adopt arbitration practices for many reasons. One is the rising cost of legal fees associated with fighting employment-related disputes. Another is to ensure employees receive due process. Regardless of the reasons, arbitration best practices include a waiver of employee right to sue after an agreement has been settled; the use of a professional, neutral arbitrator; and a signed, written agreement that has been approved by counsel.
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Question: Which of the following should not be included in an employee's regular personnel file because of privacy concerns?
A. Application for employment
B. Historical records older than three years
C. Medical benefits claims data
D. Performance reviews
Answer: C. Companies must take steps to address employee privacy concerns in all HR practices. This includes properly storing records that have information related to an employee's medical condition or history.
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Question: Of the following recognition programs, which is not entitlement-oriented?
A. Service awards
B. Employee of the month
C. Sales awards
D. Longevity bonus
Answer: C. Employee recognition practices are similar to pay practices in that they can be entitlement-oriented or performance-based. Recognition for sales efforts (quotas, new customers, account retention) is based on employee performance.
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Question: Multicultural work teams, training, and mentoring systems may all be part of what type of human resource program?
A. Diversity program
B. Climate program
C. Anti-harassment program
D. Equal Employment Opportunity program
Answer: A. Diversity programs have many components that, when combined, make them an effective tool used to promote a positive organizational culture. These components can include committees, work teams, training, mentoring, and the evaluation of results for reporting and refinement.
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Question: Discourteous behavior can quickly escalate to which of the following problems?
A. Unlawful harassment
B. Violation of a company's code of conduct
C. Workplace violence
D. All of the above
Answer: D. What starts out as mere lack of etiquette or discourteous behavior can quickly escalate if left unchecked. For this reason, it is imperative that HR address expected standards of behavior in an employee handbook as well as in practice.
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Question: The company you work for gives all employees an annual bonus right around Christmas time. The amount is dependent upon company profitability. This effort is best represented by which of the following?
A. A generous employer
B. An entitlement-oriented incentive
C. A company recognition program
D. A way to keep overtime costs down
Answer: C. Employee recognition programs can be individually based or company-wide. They can be especially effective when employees understand how their behaviors contributed to the company's success.
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Question: Under which of the following conditions may an employer avoid a claim of defamation when providing an employment reference for a former employee?
A. When the information shared is truthful
B. When the employer provides only dates of employment and a job title
C. When the employer has received written authorization from the employee to disclose personnel information
D. All of the above
Answer: D. The best defense against a claim of defamation is to be truthful, clear, and unequivocal when providing an employment reference. Many employers are also able to avoid a charge of defamation by only giving out information that is factual, such as dates of employment or a job title. In some cases, former employees will provide written authorization for a previous employer to share information from their personnel record, providing some management of risk against a defamation charge.
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Question: In a union environment, an employee who believes that he has been unfairly passed over for promotion should file which of the following?
A. A complaint
B. A grievance
C. A charge of discrimination
D. A charge of harassment
Answer: B. A grievance is a formal written complaint filed when an employee has moved beyond simply feeling dissatisfied. In a union environment, HR and the union will most likely have a formal grievance procedure.
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Question: An employee is called to his supervisor's office, believing that he will be disciplined. Accordingly, he requests that his union steward be present for the meeting. His supervisor denies the request, violating which of the following employee rights?
A. Statutory
B. Due process
C. Weingarten
D. Privacy
Answer: C. Named after the court case that established them, Weingarten rights grant covered employees the right to have representation in disciplinary meetings.
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Question: What recourse is available for an employee who was denied his Weingarten rights and, in the process, was terminated?
A. Reinstatement
B. The right to sue for criminal damage
C. The right to sue for civil damages
D. Back pay and reinstatement
Answer: D. If an employee is dismissed or otherwise harmed by a decision that violated his rights to representation in disciplinary meetings, he may be entitled to back pay and reinstatement.
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Question: Which of the following is occurring when a third party settles disputes that occur as the result of differences in the interpretation of a collective bargaining agreement?
A. Collective bargaining
B. Labor negotiations
C. Labor strike
D. Grievance arbitration
Answer: D. Grievance arbitration involves a neutral third party to settle disputes that are rooted in different interpretations of a labor contract. This process is different from issues arbitration, which utilizes a neutral third party to settle disputes regarding how a contract will be written.
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Question: Engineers, nurses, and physicians would most likely belong to what type of union?
A. Nongovernmental
B. Professional
C. Industrial
D. Services
Answer: B. As a result of the general decline in union membership over the years, unions have targeted specific industries and types of workers. The unionization of professional workers such as nurses and engineers are examples of this.
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Question: Janitors, building cleaners, and meatpacking workers are examples of which groups targeted by unions over the last several years?
A. Low skilled
B. Professional
C. Contingent
D. Part-time
Answer: A. Unions have successfully organized low-skilled workers mainly because of the hard work, low pay, and difficult working conditions characterized by these types of jobs.
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Question: A shift of a union's focus to issues of pay equity and flexible work arrangements is most likely an effort to organize which type of worker?
A. Millennials
B. Blue collar
C. Women
D. Liberal
Answer: C. The growing percentage of women in the workforce has forced unions to alter their focus on issues that matter to this demographic. These issues include child, paid family leave, maternity leave, pay equity, and flexible work arrangements, just to name a few.
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Question: Which disciplinary approach establishes the expectation in employees that they will progress through a series of steps when being disciplined?
A. Positive
B. Progressive
C. Coaching
D. Self
Answer: B. Progressive discipline policies involve the establishment of a series of steps. These steps often include some variation of a series of verbal, written, and final written warnings that, if unmet, will eventually result in termination.
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Question: Which of the following are formal systems designed to obtain employee feedback?
A. Suggestion systems
B. Focus groups
C. Surveys
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Gathering feedback is an important element of employee relations systems. It is the only way HR may design or recommend changes that will truly influence employee satisfaction. Common ways to obtain feedback include suggestion boxes, focus groups, and employee surveys.
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Question: Technological methods with which to obtain employee feedback include which of the following?
A. Focus groups
B. Teleconferencing
C. Videos
D. Instant messaging
Answer: B. The rise of technology has opened up many digital options for HR seeking to obtain employee feedback. Teleconferencing involves satellite technology that is designed to link facilities and groups for the purpose of exchanging feedback, information, and ideas.
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Question: Internal methods of communicating with employees include which of the following?
A. Intranet postings
B. Newsletters
C. Instant messaging
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Organizations have many internal options to choose from when needing to communicate with their talent. These methods include employee newsletters, videos, and postings on company intranets, memos, and staff meetings.
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Question: Taylor has been frequently absent from work over the last three months, so much so that she has violated the company's attendance policy. The supervisor has come to you for advice on how to proceed. Which of the following options puts the company at the most risk?
A. Discuss with the supervisor the reasons for the absences
B. Review with the supervisor any relevant documentation
C. Review the days missed to look for trends
D. Proceed directly with the discipline
Answer: D. At the center of taking any action against a worker is the need to consider employee rights. In this scenario, there are several labor laws that may be applicable for Taylor's case. At this stage, HR's best role is to help the supervisor gather and review as much relevant information as possible before making a decision to proceed with the discipline.
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Question: Which of the following is the role of a supervisor—not human resources—when disciplining an employee?
A. Make the decision to discipline
B. Train managers on disciplinary actions
C. Design disciplinary procedures
D. Understand labor laws related to employee rights
Answer: A. HR often serves in an advisory capacity when the need for discipline arises. Generally, it is up to the direct supervisor or manager to ultimately make the decision to discipline their employee.
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Question: The best discipline could be described as which of the following?
A. Training
B. Self-discipline
C. Progressive
D. All of the above
Answer: B. Most employees genuinely want to succeed in their work environment. When they clearly understand the behavioral expectations and outcomes, most will apply the proper levels of self-discipline to be successful in their jobs.
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Question: Chuck has been struggling with having a positive attitude at work. You and his supervisor met with Chuck to make him aware of the behavioral expectations. As a result, Chuck's attitude improves. This approach is a characteristic of which type of discipline?
A. Counseling
B. Progressive
C. Positive
D. Mentoring
Answer: C. Positive discipline approaches are characterized by constructive partnerships between the employee, manager, and human resources. The goal is to clearly communicate the expectations for behavior and engage in joint problem-solving.
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Question: Of the following, which is the most challenging issue when implementing a positive discipline approach?
A. Gaining employee buy-in
B. Monitoring for consistent practices
C. Writing a legally compliant policy
D. The time it takes to train managers
Answer: D. The positive approach to discipline focuses on joint problem-solving as opposed to a series of progressive consequences of employee behavioral issues. It requires extensive training for managers and supervisors to both understand and apply behavioral science theories such motivation and performance coaching.
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Question: You are the senior labor relations specialist at your place of work, and the company has an existing progressive discipline policy and practice. Under this policy, which of the following employee offenses would most likely lead to immediate termination?
A. Falsifying an employment application
B. Insubordination
C. Safety rule violation
D. Excessive tardiness
Answer: A. Progressive discipline policies include a series of steps (verbal, written, final written, etc.) to address employee performance deficiencies. There are certain egregious offenses, however, in which an employee may be immediately discharged. These include falsifying an employment application, theft, and alcohol or drug use at work.
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Question: Why might a manager be reluctant to discipline an employee?
A. Fear of conflict
B. Guilt
C. Fear of lawsuits
D. All of the above
Answer: D. There are many reasons managers may hesitate to discipline their employees. Some supervisors are not effective conflict managers, while others may know that they (and others) are guilty of similar offenses. The fear of the company or they themselves being sued may also influence a manager's decision to take corrective action to resolve negative employee behaviors.
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Question: Which of the following are mandatory notices for an employee who has been discharged?
A. COBRA notification
B. Severance agreement
C. Employee Change in Status form
D. Both A and C
Answer: A. Notification requirements at the time of employee separation can vary greatly between federal and state regulations as well as between individual employer practices. Of the options, only the COBRA notification for continuation of health benefits is federally mandated for covered employers.
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Question: To be effective, HR policies should be which of the following?
A. Effective
B. Relevant
C. Legal
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Written policies for the sake of having policies can cause employers all sorts of problems, from implementation to managing risk. It is important that human resources evaluate all current and potential policies to ensure that they are relevant, effective, and legal.
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Question: You received an urgent call from management saying that the surveillance system caught an employee downloading a customer list to a thumb drive. What should you advise?
A. Confront the employee and immediately search them and their belongings.
B. Call the police.
C. Confront the employee and show the proof of the theft.
D. Nothing; employee surveillance is unlawful.
Answer: C. HR is often called in to help with investigations of employee wrongdoing. Of the options presented, confronting the employee and showing the proof of the theft should be enough to either get the employee to confess or to terminate the employee for cause.
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Question: How are procedures different from policies?
A. Procedures are general guidelines for employee behaviors.
B. Policies are more specific than procedures.
C. Procedures are more specific than policies.
D. There is no difference.
Answer: C. Policies are general guidelines for both company and employee behaviors. Procedures, on the other hand, are more specific practices of how processes should be completed or systems should be implemented.
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Question: Your company handbook includes the statement "Employees are prohibited from alcohol use at work." This is an example of which of the following?
A. Policy
B. Procedure
C. Rule
D. All of the above
Answer: C. A rule is a specific guideline that serves to restrict certain employee behaviors. Often found in the handbook under "Code of Conduct," rules are written so there is very little interpretation needed as to their meaning.
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Question: Which of the following phrases should be eliminated from a company handbook?
A. Permanent employee
B. Probation period
C. No social media use
D. All of the above
Answer: D. There are many risks that can be created simply by the language used in a company handbook. The term permanent employee dilutes employment at will, and a probationary period—as opposed to an introductory period—does the same. Prohibiting social media use completely can erode an employee's right to engage in protected concerted activity under the National Labor Relations Act.
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Question: "This employee handbook is not intended to be part of a contract..." is being used in an employee handbook to preserve which of the following?
A. Employee rights
B. Employer rights
C. Employment at will
D. The public policy exception
Answer: C. Disclaimers such as the one in the question are used to preserve the nature of at-will employment between the employer and employee.
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Question: Your company CEO recorded a "state of the company" video and asked you to post it on the company intranet. This is an example of what type of communication?
A. Upward communication
B. Downward communication
C. Electronic communication
D. Digital communication
Answer: B. Downward communication flows from executives, managers, and supervisors down to the employees.
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Question: A safety suggestion system is an example of which of the following?
A. Employee survey
B. Downward communication
C. Upward communication
D. Incentive
Answer: C. Any type of suggestion system allows an upward flow of communication from employees to management.
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Question: The large hotel you work for asks guests to complete cards commenting on the level of service they received from the workers. These results are most likely used by human resources to do what?
A. Recognize employees
B. Discipline employees
C. Refine procedures
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Gathering feedback from both internal and external sources is a critical task for human resources. Feedback can be used to recognize, reward, and discipline employees but also to inform organizational decision-making to improve procedures.
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Question: Which of the following requires employers to provide jobs and a workplace environment that are free from recognized safety and health hazards?
A. An emergency action plan
B. The Control of Hazardous Energy standard
C. The General Duty standard
D. The Hazard Communication standard
Answer: C. The General Duty standard emphasizes the need for employers to protect employees from hazards, even in the absence of a specific directive (standard) to do so. In addition, they have a general duty to comply with all applicable standards that pertain to their workplace.
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Question: Workplace violence, theft, and computer hackers are all classified as which of the following types of risk?
A. Security
B. Health
C. Safety
D. Financial
Answer: A. Security risks are those that affect the financial, physical, informational, or human assets of an organization.
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Question: Which of the following types of risk is associated with embezzling?
A. Legal
B. Safety and health
C. Security
D. Workplace privacy
Answer: C. Security risks are associated with financial operations and practices in addition to securing the physical assets of a business.
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Question: The controller of your organization was caught paying herself for additional vacation time that was never authorized or approved. Additionally, she coded the transactions so that they did not show up under G&A payroll but rather as a production expense. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Fraudulent activity
B. Deception
C. Forgery
D. Misrepresentation of financial statements
Answer: A. Employee embezzlement or theft is a type of fraud committed against the employer and is subject to prosecution.
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Question: Natural disasters and terrorism are both threats to which of the following?
A. Employee safety and health
B. Resource availability
C. Business continuity
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Incidents such as natural disasters, terrorism, workplace violence, and loss of utilities are threats to more than just employee safety. These events may disrupt services from resources such as police and fire, as well as impact a business's ability to continue offering services or shipping products.
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Question: A review of the human capital management plan (HCMP) is most likely to occur in what type of audit?
A. Risk assessment
B. HR
C. GAAP
D. Internal revenue (tax)
Answer: B. A human resource audit is a type of assessment used to gather information about an organization that can be used in decision-making. Evaluating the HCMP is useful to gather data about employee skillsets and future plans to make decisions about current and future staffing levels.
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Question: As the HR manager for a small construction firm, you have begun to notice an increase in falls at various work sites. So far, no one has been seriously injured; in fact, the employees joke about their "close calls." Which of the following should you do?
A. Discipline employees for not taking safety risks seriously
B. Conduct worksite inspections to identify potential fall hazards
C. Retrain employees in your company's fall protection procedures
D. Nothing yet, as no injuries have occurred
Answer: B. Any time there is an uptick in near misses, a company should take notice. Encouraging employees to speak up will help identify potential hazards and allow for a preventive response. Site walk-throughs can help identify hazards, as well as give HR the opportunity to talk with employees about what might help to keep a near miss from becoming an injury.
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Question: The manager of the marketing department established a goal for his staff that directed them to double unique web traffic to the website within 90 days. If they accomplish this goal, the department will evenly split a bonus among them. The manager is most likely using which performance management technique?
A. SMART
B. MBO
C. 360
D. Forced distribution
Answer: B. Management by objectives (MBO) is characterized by an agreement between a manager and employee that ideally cascades down from a company's strategic plan.
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Question: Why is it important to have a nonunion philosophy statement?
A. It supports an open door policy for employees to discuss wages and working conditions directly with the employer.
B. It gives employers the opportunity to respond to dissatisfiers prior to the relationship becoming adversarial.
C. Once a union has petitioned for an election, an employer's right to communicate is restricted.
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Employers often hesitate to even mention the word union for fear that it will give the employees ideas. However, a nonunion philosophy serves to communicate to employees the employer's desire to hear their grievances directly and provides the employer with the opportunity to respond before they are required to do so under strict regulations.
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Question: One of the company's best performers is extremely self-managed and able to follow all rules and procedures with very little direction or feedback. This employee is most likely high in which personality characteristic?
A. Neuroticism
B. Conscientiousness
C. Awareness
D. Emotional intelligence
Answer: B. In personality theory, conscientiousness has been linked to successful employee outcomes. This trait is characterized by employees who follow all rules and procedures and have a general sense of care about the well-being of others.
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Question: Organizational citizenship behaviors are marked by which of the following individual characteristics?
A. Sportsmanship, altruism, and conscientiousness
B. Courtesy, civic virtue, and pride
C. Conscientiousness, courtesy, and altruism
D. Conscientiousness, civic virtue, and emotional intelligence
Answer: C. Organizational citizenship behaviors have been linked to individual traits including conscientiousness, courtesy, altruism, sportsmanship, and civic virtue.
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Question: The investment of physical, emotional, and cognitive resources best describes which of the following?
A. Employee engagement
B. Job satisfaction
C. Organizational commitment
D. Employee relations
Answer: A. Employee engagement is a term that has lacked coherent application in many organizations. Organizational scientists have found some agreement, however, in that engagement behaviors include the investment of personal energies such as physical, emotional, and cognitive into the work tasks themselves.
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Question: Which of the following terms describes an organization that is rigidly devoted to polices, rules, and procedures?
A. Centralized
B. Formal
C. Decentralized
D. Bureaucratic
Answer: D. A bureaucratic organization is one that is characterized by administrative workflow, rigid policies, and procedures. These types of structures evolved from the shift of small family-owned farms and businesses to organizations that employed hundreds of people as the result of the Industrial Revolution.
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Question: Which of the following conditions is most likely to improve employee productivity according to humanistic theories of motivation?
A. More qualified supervisors
B. Improved tools and equipment
C. Management attention and feedback
D. Equal rewards
Answer: C. The focus of the humanistic theories of motivation is on the psychological conditions under which people work. According to these theories, the psychological conditions under which employees work are just as important as the environmental conditions.
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Question: The consideration of employee inputs, work processes, and outputs are at the heart of which category of organizational theories?
A. Systems
B. Humanistic
C. Bureaucratic
D. Relational
Answer: A. Systems theories view organizations as a "whole" entity as opposed to focusing on a single part. These theories consider the inputs, the throughputs, and the outputs of a company along with the context (political, economic) in which they perform.
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Question: Which of the following intervention strategies should you recommend to an employer wanting to improve creativity and innovation in the workplace?
A. Create a bonus program.
B. Increase diversity.
C. Improve the quality of tools and equipment to encourage these outcomes.
D. Allow employees to adjust their schedules based on project needs.
Answer: B. Traditional application of many motivation theories is based on increasing rewards or punishment. Studies have found that this does not work when it comes to improving creativity; in fact, it actually narrows the focus to simply getting the reward. Increasing diversity has been shown to open up creative processes by gaining multiple perspectives and different ways of thinking.
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Question: The desire to do something that matters is an example of what type of reward?
A. Psychological
B. Direct
C. Extrinsic
D. Intrinsic
Answer: D. Intrinsic rewards are those that come from within. Employees who perform because they like the work or take pride in their effort are said to be intrinsically motivated.
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Question: Which of the following management techniques should you recommend to an employer that requires immediate compliance from their employees, such as for air traffic controllers or emergency dispatchers?
A. Decentralized
B. Self-direction
C. Open systems
D. Traditional
Answer: D. Management as a practice has had to evolve as the nature of business has evolved. Traditional forms of management made up of hierarchies, policies, and rules are most effective in environments where high degrees of compliance are necessary or desired.
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Question: The customer service representatives at your business are experiencing high degrees of burnout because 90 percent of their calls are from disgruntled customers. Which of the following is the most likely source of their burnout?
A. Low emotional intelligence
B. High degree of emotional labor
C. Negative collective affect
D. Low pay
Answer: B. Emotional labor is the degree of effort it takes to manage emotions at work. In customer service settings, for example, an employee may get frustrated with an angry customer but must mask their true feelings to meet customer demands.
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Question: An employee complains to their supervisor that another employee is always late, stating that "it must be because he is lazy and just doesn't want to come to work." The next day, the complaining employee was late, and when asked why, he stated that "construction on his normal commute was heavier than usual that day." The complaining employee is most likely making what type of error?
A. Values-based
B. Discrimination
C. Bias
D. Fundamental attribution
Answer: D. The fundamental attribution error states that people have a tendency to attribute other people's negative behavior to an internal character flaw and their own negative behaviors to a cause of the situation.
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Question: The president of the company you work for wants to embark on a cost savings initiative throughout all departments. All employees will receive a percentage of the savings at the end of the year. This is an example of what type of compensation program?
A. Deferred compensation
B. Gain-sharing
C. Discretionary bonus
D. Commission
Answer: B. A gainsharing plan is a type of compensation that is tied to performance. It can be the result of either increased revenue or cost-saving activities.
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Question: Which of the following theories of motivation looks at how people compare their efforts with their rewards?
A. Equity
B. Intrinsic
C. Extrinsic
D. Systems
Answer: A. Equity theories of motivation pivot on the idea that employees are motivated most by when their inputs (what they put into the job) are equal to the rewards (what they receive in return).
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Question: Many employees are struggling to perform under the new management structure that has recently been put into place. Their primary concern is that they don't know how long the new structure will hold, simply because the company has tried it before and it didn't work. As a result, they are hesitant to invest too much effort into the new requirements. This is an example of which of the following conditions of change?
A. Freezing
B. Norming
C. Change uncertainty
D. Change avoidance
Answer: C. Change uncertainty is a source of stress for employees that is directly tied to changes in the workplace. It occurs in the context of employees being uncertain as to how a change will affect them personally, their department, or the company as a whole.
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Question: Organizational development is made up of which of the following scientific domains?
A. Social psychology
B. Industrial-organizational psychology
C. Applied psychology
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Organizational development consists of a series of interventions that may address strategic, operational, or human resource-style challenges. As a result, OD consists of scientific theories designed to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being, all of which must be applied in a workplace setting.
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Question: Fill in the blanks: _____________ are a creative tool used for brainstorming that is more restrictive than _____________.
A. Focus groups; employee surveys
B. Nominal groups; the Delphi technique
C. Employee surveys; focus groups
D. Mind-maps; the Medici approach
Answer: B. Nominal groups and the Delphi technique are often confused with one another. A nominal group can meet face to face, but the discussions are more tightly controlled/facilitated than in the Delphi approach. Both are used to reach consensus in decision-making.
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Question: A local gym recently sold the rights to another company to use their name, supply chain resources, and workflow processes in another city. This is an example of what type of business structure?
A. Subsidiary
B. Merger
C. Joint venture
D. Franchising
Answer: D. Franchising is a business structure in which one company licenses the rights to another business to use their brand, supply chain, and workflow practices. Ownership remains separate in this type of structure.
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Question: Which of the following types of budgets starts from scratch each year?
A. Incremental
B. Bottom up
C. Zero-based
D. Top-down
Answer: C. Zero-based budgets are not built upon the previous year's spending. This approach allows departments to build budgets that are more in line with a company's strategic plan and business objectives.
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Question: Cost savings, availability of talent, and specialized expertise are all reasons for HR to recommend which of the following staffing strategies?
A. Co-sourcing
B. Temporary workers
C. Professional employer organizations
D. Part-time workers
Answer: A. Co-sourcing is an alternative staffing strategy that can lend itself to several positive outcomes. Often used when talent is scarce or for project-based work, co-sourcing can result in cost savings when leveraged properly.
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Question: Which of the following is an example of a business operating expense?
A. Salaries
B. Rent
C. Software licenses
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Business operating expenses such as salaries, rent, equipment, technology, benefits, and more all make up a company's overhead. For HR purposes, labor is often the largest expense, followed closely by employee benefits.
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Question: In your HR department, one employee is responsible for recruiting, selection, and safety; another is responsible for performance management; and a third person is responsible for employee relations and separations. This is an example of what element of a business structure?
A. Span of control
B. Hierarchy of authority
C. Division of labor
D. Generalists and specialists
Answer: C. Division of labor is a term that identifies the responsibilities of each individual within a department or company.
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Question: Which of the following is not an example of a line manager?
A. HR manager
B. Production manager
C. Sales manager
D. All of the above are line managers.
Answer: A. The key distinction between line and staff management is revenue generation. Line managers are those who are responsible for processes and people who generate revenue for a business. Staff managers are those who support line managers such as accounting, IT, and HR.
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Question: Which of the following sources of data should you trust the most when it comes to building wage bands?
A. Professional wage surveys
B. Government wage data tables
C. Internet sources such as salary.com or monster.com
D. Local industry groups
Answer: B. There are many external sources of information related to how HR makes decisions. In terms of credibility, HR should rely on evidence-based tools such as governmental, academic, or scientific resources that have been proven valid and reliable.
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Question: You are in the final decision-making meeting related to the hiring of a budget analyst. The salary range for the position is between $80,000 and $120,000, and you didn't really plan to pay on the high end. During negotiations, the applicant states that she is looking for a minimum of $130,000 plus bonus. As a result, you decide to offer the candidate a starting salary of $115,000. Which type of bias has possibly occurred?
A. Confirmation bias
B. Availability bias
C. Anchoring bias
D. No bias occurred because you were still within range.
Answer: C. Anchoring bias in negotiations occurs when an individual starts with a higher dollar amount, thus anchoring that amount in your mind as a starting point. In this case, you did not plan to pay on the high end of the range, but the candidate starting point was high enough to get you to change your behavior and offer more than intended.
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Question: Knowledge, experience, and future competencies of employees all represent which of the following?
A. Human capital
B. Human resources
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Psychological capital
Answer: A. Employee knowledge, talents, and skills that add value to an organization all make up what is called human capital. The availability of future skillsets for which an employer may compete is included in this category; for this reason, human capital management plans focus on both acquiring and retaining a qualified workforce.
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Question: By keeping the principles of VUCA in mind—conditions that are volatile, uncertain, complex, and ambiguous—what type of talent acquisition strategy should HR business partners develop?
A. Single-scenario planning
B. Multiple-scenario planning
C. Best-case scenario planning
D. Worst-case scenario planning
Answer: B. VUCA conditions are the "new normal" for business and HR. The best answer then is to plan for multiple scenarios and outcomes, including both best- and worst-case situations.
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Question: New hires at the giant retailer for which you work are told that "putting employees first" is the company's highest value. Which of the following conditions would most directly contradict this company value?
A. Lack of time-off flexibility
B. Multiple lawsuits from former employees
C. Refusing to accommodate military leave requests
D. Highly routinized jobs in which employees are easily replaced
Answer: A. While all the conditions in the options contribute to high turnover, lack of non-legally required time-off flexibility for employees is the most contradictory to a company that states that serving employees is their highest value.
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Question: What is the main benefit of transactional onboarding practices?
A. Employee acculturation
B. Increased retention in the first six months of employment
C. Improved employee satisfaction
D. Making processes more efficient
Answer: D. Transactional orientation and onboarding practices include automating processes such as Form I-9 and W-4 processing. Transactional practices increase efficiencies through automation while at the same time helping employers manage the risks associated with processing errors.
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Question: A corporation that franchises its business model also requires its franchisees to use their computer system to process employee payroll. This practice is most likely to trigger which of the following conditions?
A. A claim of indirect control
B. The ostensible agency theory
C. Joint employment liability
D. All of the above
Answer: D. As McDonald's Corporation discovered, certain practices with its franchisees led to a charge that the corporation indirectly controlled the conditions of employees, causing them to "ostensibly" believe that they were employees of McDonald's Corporation, not only of the franchise. For this reason, the National Labor Relations Board revised their definition of joint employment, and franchise employees were allowed to sue the corporation and franchisee in a class action wage and hour lawsuit.
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Question: What is the primary difference between andragogy and pedagogy—how adults and children learn?
A. Adults learn using visual, auditory, and tactile skills; children are mostly tactile.
B. Adults collect information for immediate use; children acquire general knowledge to be used in the future.
C. Adults are dependent upon others to acquire useful knowledge; children are more independent and explorative.
D. There are no real differences between adult and child learning principles.
Answer: B. Malcolm Knowles conducted foundational research in andragogy—how adults learn. One finding was that adults orient toward learning that is focused on practical problem-solving or immediate use. Children, however, are taught to orient more toward general knowledge to be used at a future date.
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Question: An employer who seeks to pay all employees within the 50th percentile of the labor market is using what type of compensation strategy?
A. Quartile
B. Entitlement
C. Performance
D. Equity
Answer: A. A quartile compensation strategy seeks to align wage bands to the relevant labor market. It relies on valid market data to properly build wage ranges, from which employee pay decisions are made.
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Question: A cost-of-living pay adjustment is the best example of what type of compensation strategy?
A. Quartile
B. Entitlement
C. Performance
D. Equity
Answer: B. Entitlement forms of pay are those that reward employees for years of service or for loyalty. A cost-of-living adjustment is not given based on any particular performance criteria; therefore, it is a form of entitlement pay.
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Question: The large bank you work for has reached out to its major competitors to see whether they would all agree to not pay above the 25th percentile for all management positions. This, they argue, will allow each institution to fairly compete for talent. This agreement is most likely to come under fire from which agency?
A. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
B. The Department of Labor
C. The Department of Justice
D. The National Labor Relations Board
Answer: C. The Department of Justice (DOJ) is responsible for litigation related to violations of the Sherman Antitrust act. This act prohibits price fixing of any sort, including market-based pay.
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Question: Technocorp Inc. is located in the Silicon Valley of California but shares 51 percent of its ownership with a parent company in Puerto Rico. This is most likely what type of business entity?
A. Multinational corporation
B. Franchise
C. Joint venture
D. Foreign subsidiary
Answer: D. A foreign subsidiary is a legal term defining ownership. A company that is more than 50 percent owned or controlled by a parent company in another country is a foreign subsidiary.
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Question: Fiduciary responsibility applies to which of the following?
A. A human resource professional
B. A board of directors
C. A chief financial officer
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Fiduciary responsibility applies to many individuals with positions of authority within an organization. Fiduciary responsibility requires that these individuals act without self-interest, making quality decisions that serve all company stakeholders.
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Question: Overpopulation, poverty, and lack of clean water are all global issues that many businesses are tackling with the help of which of the following?
A. Community organizers
B. Nongovernment organizations (NGOs)
C. Agencies such as the American Red Cross
D. Other business leaders
Answer: B. Nongovernment organizations are gaining in popularity as a tool to help global and multinational businesses engage in social responsibility initiatives. NGOs are typically nonprofit, voluntary, and independent of any particular government.
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Question: Many employers are researching and switching to health insurance captives for which of the following reasons?
A. It can control costs of health insurance.
B. It allows employers to purchase stop-loss insurance for larger claims.
C. Claims data is more controlled and thus utilized to make decisions about benefits.
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Many experts believe that the use of self-funded health insurance "captives" will only continue to grow. This is because businesses are finding that they can more effectively control the cost of benefits plans through the use of data to shape benefits offerings to employees and predict exposure. It also allows employers to purchase stop-loss insurance, which can be used to cover the costs of catastrophic years.
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Question: Wendy is the director of HR at a large multinational corporation. She extended the open enrollment period for benefits to accommodate her spouse, who required a different plan. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Breach of company trust
B. Exercising a choice-of-law clause
C. Breaking the law
D. Unethical conduct
Answer: D. Human resource professionals have high ethical standards that must be adhered to. This includes not using their decision-making authority to meet personal needs or commitments.
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Question: Fill in the blanks: _____________ refers to the way an employee feels when working on job tasks, whereas _____________ refers to an evaluation of the organization as a whole.
A. Work engagement; organizational commitment
B. Organizational commitment; work engagement
C. Work engagement; job satisfaction
D. Job satisfaction; work engagement
Answer: A. Many HR practitioners and businesses use the terms work engagement and job satisfaction interchangeably. Organizational science has found that work engagement refers to how employees feel about the job tasks, whereas organizational commitment refers to how employees feel about the company as a whole.
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Question: Which of the following is the most fundamental component of workforce planning?
A. Job pricing
B. Job design
C. Job evaluation
D. Job analysis
Answer: D. Job analysis is the process used to define a job in terms of its component tasks from which all other HR practices and strategies may be built.
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Question: When calculating the number of new hires in a 12-month period, you drop the oldest number when a recent month is added. This is an example of what type of quantitative analysis?
A. Mean
B. Central tendency
C. Rolling average
D. Weighted average
Answer: C. A rolling average—sometimes called a moving average—is used to calculate an average for a specific period of time. In this scenario, as a new month is added, the oldest number is dropped.
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Question: Which of the following tools should you first use when considering the integration of an HRIS system into your workplace?
A. Results from a needs analysis
B. The ROI of the system
C. An RFP
D. The proposed system's features and benefits
Answer: A. When considering the implementation of any new technology, HR must consider the needs that the company is seeking to meet. A needs analysis will provide information to help calculate the return on the investment, as well as identify what information suppliers should include in a request for proposal.
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Question: A business case can help management make better-quality decisions because it does which of the following?
A. Communicates how a plan will influence operational efficiencies
B. Provides multiple options for solving a business problem
C. Describes possible risks that could result from taking action
D. Quantitatively analyzes relevant HR trends
Answer: C. The main purpose of building a business case is to help an employer make a decision on a particular course of action. This includes a description of the potential risks of taking—or in some cases, not taking—action.
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Question: Under what conditions should you recommend that an employer require an employee to take a polygraph test?
A. If you believe an employee is under the influence of a drug at work
B. If you believe the controller embezzled funds
C. If an employee accuses another employee of violent behavior
D. Never, because polygraph tests are unlawful.
Answer: B. The Department of Labor allows private employers to commission polygraph tests for employees under certain conditions, including when an employee is suspected of theft or embezzlement. The administration of the test, however, must be done by a licensed professional, with the results kept confidential.
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Question: The company you work for prefers a flat-line decision-making structure. They strive to grant as much decision-making power to the employees as possible and tie pay directly to performance outcomes when possible. This is most likely what type of organization?
A. A high-involvement organization
B. A learning organization
C. An Internet start-up
D. A nonprofit
Answer: A. High-involvement organizations are those that seek to give authority to all levels of employees. These organizations are defined by flat-line structures, transparency, and pay for performance compensation programs.
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Question: Which of the following job characteristics contribute most to a sense of employee ownership over outcomes?
A. Task significance and autonomy
B. Autonomy and feedback
C. Skill variety and task identity
D. Task significance and feedback
Answer: B. The job characteristics model describes the influence of job design on worker engagement and ownership. Specifically, research has found that allowing employees to control their work (autonomy) and providing them with meaningful feedback increases a sense of responsibility and ownership of their jobs.
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Question: During training, you notice that an employee rapidly learns the new material that is exciting. After she has mastered the task, there is really not much else to learn. She most likely is experiencing which type of learning curve?
A. Positively accelerating
B. S-shaped
C. Plateau
D. Negatively accelerating
Answer: D. A negatively accelerating learning curve is characterized by rapid learning at the beginning of training, with a tapering off as the skills are mastered.
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Question: A large network software firm creates a program for women in leadership. Participants meet every month for a year to provide peer support toward taking on more leadership tasks or roles. At the end of the third year, more than 100 women have graduated from the program. This company is engaged in which of the following?
A. Diversity-based networking
B. Learning circles
C. Executive groups
D. Incubators
Answer: B. Learning circles are called many things (Socratic circles, quality circles, etc.), but all have a similar purpose. Learning circles are generally organized around a theme or purpose and are characterized by diversity, respect, and collaboration toward success in specific outcomes or targets.
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Question: Many states have recently adopted laws that forbid employers from asking applicants about their prior salary history. This is known as what type of law?
A. Anti-harassment laws
B. Wage and hour laws
C. Pay equity laws
D. Anti-discrimination laws
Answer: C. Pay equity laws are trending more and more in the United States. In this case, pay history bans are designed to reduce the systemic pay disparities between men and women—if women are paid unequally and employers pay based on salary history, it stands to reason then that asking about salary history will perpetuate the disparities.
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Question: Employee behavior will be affected by wages based upon which of the following?
A. If they can live comfortably on their base wages
B. If they are making more in their current jobs than they could working for competitors
C. The perception of what was earned versus what was discretionary
D. The perception that they are paid what they are worth
Answer: C. Organizational justice issues around compensation have an absolute impact on the nonmonetary value of total rewards. Justice issues include the manner in which rewards are allocated; employee behavior will be altered to the extent that rewards are earned and that rewards are discretionary.
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Question: The HR manager for whom you are responsible got upset after a disgruntled employee yelled at her. By the end of the day, however, she understood that the employee's anger had nothing to do with her and that he was just reacting to the situation. The HR manager is demonstrating which of the following elements of emotional intelligence?
A. Emotional regulation
B. Emotional labor
C. Self-awareness
D. Emotional support
Answer: A. Emotional intelligence is considered to have three aspects: self-awareness, other awareness, and emotional regulation. Emotional regulation is the ability of individuals to recover rapidly from an experienced emotion.
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Question: Which of the following statements regarding emotional intelligence (EI) is false?
A. EI is related to other types of intelligence, including IQ.
B. Employees have different levels of EI.
C. EI can be learned.
D. EI is highly predictive of employee performance.
Answer: D. Organizational science has spent a lot of time trying to understand the impact that emotional intelligence has on individual employee performance. A review of the studies found that there was only a modest correlation between EI levels and employee performance. Studies have found, however, that EI can be learned; it varies from individual to individual; and it is distinct from but positively related to other types of intelligence, such as IQ.
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Question: Which generation is more likely to value money and flexibility as career goals?
A. Generation X
B. Boomers
C. Millennials
D. Traditionalists
Answer: B. With multiple generations in the workplace, it can be difficult to balance the different priorities for career development. Boomers generally are seeking monetary gains and stability along with flexibility. Immediate rewards and career portability are valued by generation Xers, and millennials gravitate toward parallel careers and choice.
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Question: The diversity manager at the Fortune 500 company for which you work has asked for the EEO 1 reports showing the demographics of the new hires over the last six months. The diversity manager is considering what type of diversity?
A. Deep-level
B. Surface-level
C. Trait-based
D. Biological
Answer: B. Surface-level diversity is what many think of when they hear the term diversity, mainly because they are observable. Surface-level diversity includes traits such as sex, race, and age.
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Question: The values and attitudes held by employees has been shown by research to be positively correlated with overall performance. This is an example of what type of diversity at work?
A. Deep-level
B. Surface-level
C. Trait-based
D. Biological
Answer: A. Deep-level diversity includes the attitudes and beliefs of each individual. Studies have shown that when measured and understood, deep-level diversity factors may contribute more to individual and organizational performance than its counterpart, surface-level diversity.
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Question: Under which condition may an employer adopt a fluctuating work week to calculate employee pay?
A. For exempt employees to keep track of time
B. If the employee schedules actually fluctuate
C. For nonexempt workers who are paid a flat, biweekly sum
D. Never, because fluctuating workweeks are prohibited under the Fair Labor Standards Act.
Answer: B. One main consideration for an employer seeking to adopt an alternative overtime pay calculation of the fluctuating workweek is whether the employee's schedule actually fluctuates on a week-to-week basis.
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Question: Of the following pairs of words, which are most likely to positively affect the collective attitude of a team?
A. Job involvement and employee engagement
B. Job enlargement and job enrichment
C. Fair pay and feedback
D. Social pressure and emotional contagion
Answer: D. Teams often take on a single personality made up of the job attitudes of its members. Social pressure from teammates can strengthen either a positive or negative team attitude. Emotional contagion occurs when a negative (or positive) mood infects the attitudes of a team.
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Question: You recently were informed that your company is being acquired by a major competitor. You have been authorized to put together an executive agreement that will pay the CEO to stay on board for a period of three years after the deal is finalized. This is an example of which executive compensation benefit?
A. Golden handcuff
B. Golden parachute
C. Golden life jacket
D. Golden handshake
Answer: C. Of the "golden" category of executive benefits, a lifejacket is used to ensure an executive remains with a company after an event such as a merger or acquisition.
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Question: Which of the following is the proper definition of phantom stock?
A. Employees are offered stock options as incentives but are not allowed to exercise them until they are fully vested.
B. Employees are incentivized based on the stock price but never actually earn shares.
C. Employees are offered stock shares at the strike price.
D. Employees are offered equity shares but must earn the ability to trade.
Answer: B. Phantom stock is one way to pay employees for company performance without having to grant actual shares.
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Question: The large construction company for which you work is struggling to find foremen in the ever-growing economy. They realize they are at risk to lose the ability to complete the several jobs they have on the books and so decide to increase field employee pay to the 90th percentile of the midrange market wage. This is an example of which of the following risk management strategies?
A. Mitigation
B. Avoidance
C. Acceptance
D. Transference
Answer: A. Risk mitigation techniques are focused on minimizing the risk, which in this case is losing good employees to competitors and being unable to satisfy their book of business.
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Question: Which of the following HR docs run the risk of creating an implied employment contract?
A. Job offers
B. Job descriptions
C. Performance reviews
D. All of the above
Answer: D. Implied contracts can be established if HR does not take care to word information properly. A best practice is to use statements of at-will employment on documents such as job offers and job descriptions. It is also important that supervisors and other performance raters are trained to avoid making performance statements such as "you'll have a job here for life if you keep performing this way" to avoid claims of an implied contract.
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Question: Predicting the consequences of an electricity outage at your place of work is the primary focus of which of the following business continuity planning tools?
A. Hazard assessment
B. Rapid response plan
C. Business impact analysis
D. Prevention plan
Answer: C. Assessing the business impact of any type of operational disruption (natural or man-made) is the focus of a business impact analysis (BIA). HR should consider lost or delayed sales or income, increased expenses (overtime, outsourcing), potential regulatory fines, and other impacts that may be the result of a business disruption.
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Question: The large manufacturer for which you work recently automated the high-hazard job that was the primary source of injury for employees. This is an example of what type of hazard control?
A. Administrative
B. Engineering
C. Training
D. PPE
Answer: B. Controls that are introduced to reduce workplace hazards may be administrative, engineering, or the requirement of personal protective equipment. In this example, a process was changed to reduce hazard exposure, which is a type of engineering control as defined by OSHA.
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Question: Glare and shadow controls are possible abatement strategies for which type of workplace hazard?
A. Lighting
B. Machinery
C. Electricity
D. Housekeeping
Answer: A. OSHA recommends that employers both inspect and respond to employee safety hazards that may exist due to poor lighting at workstations. This includes assessing the type and intensity of station lighting along with the presence (or lack of) glare/shadow controls that can contribute to eye strain.
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Question: The major hospital for which you work has asked you to create an educational resource for local employers to help prepare for an influenza pandemic. Which of the following would you recommend employers do to help prevent the spread of disease?
A. Mandate flu vaccines for all employees.
B. Encourage employees to stay home when sick.
C. Provide hand sanitizer to kill the germs.
D. All of the above
Answer: B. A global pandemic of the flu (such as H1N1 in 2009) is a threat that occurs when a new strain of the virus emerges. New strain pandemics are resistant to seasonal vaccines and can spread quickly. For that reason, employers should have flexible attendance policies that encourage workers to stay home when sick to avoid the spread of the disease.
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Question: The rise of sexual harassment claims in the news in 2018 is most likely going to lead to which of the following conditions?
A. More enforcement of existing anti-harassment laws
B. Increased training obligations of employers
C. An increase in claims of workplace harassment
D. Higher employee fines for wrongdoing
Answer: C. The high-profile nature of the multitude of 2017 and 2018 sexual harassment claims in the workplace is bound to change the organizational climate in some way. Anti-harassment and training responsibilities have been around for a long time, but the employer culture of retaliation seemed to discourage reporting in many of the cases. While difficult to predict, it seems that the stigma of reporting and increased credibility of worker charges forecasts an increase in harassment claims that HR departments should be prepared to investigate.
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Question: Tension headaches, absenteeism, and erratic behaviors are all signs of which of the following workplace safety hazards?
A. Substance abuse
B. Autoimmune disorders
C. Soft tissue injury
D. Stress
Answer: D. Stress due to work or non-work-related circumstances is a real issue that employer safety programs may need to address. According to the CDC, symptoms may include tension headaches, excessive absenteeism, unusual or out-of-character behaviors, crying, and difficulty making decisions.
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Question: Your American employer has asked you to identify the risk of global illness for expatriates working across the globe. Which HR tool should you use?
A. An international broker
B. Government resources
C. A self-inspection
D. A job hazard analysis
Answer: B. There are many methods employers may choose to conduct an assessment of the specific types of risks associated with sending expatriates to various parts of the world. In this case, the assessment may be begin by accessing the United States' Centers for Disease Control's global health website, which includes up-to-date information on the global health risks in various countries.
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Question: Which of the following groups contribute to the design and enforcement of workplace health and safety standards for multinational employers across Europe?
A. OSHA
B. Works councils
C. Labor unions
D. All of the above
Answer: D. The European Agency for Safety and Health at Work (EU-OSHA), trade unions, and works councils all have taken some measure of responsibility for designing and enforcing safety standards that protect workers.
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Question: Of the following HR tools, which is the first that you should use when trying to identify predictors of success in a job?
A. Job analysis
B. Job specifications
C. Job descriptions
D. Job evaluation
Answer: A. Job analysis serves as the fundamental starting point for many HR processes, both operationally and strategically. When done properly, job analysis both defines the work but also identifies the relevant criteria that are important for success. From that criteria, employment tests designed to predict performance can be selected.
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Question: Which of the following is quickly becoming the primary way employers vet job candidates in the 21st century?
A. Online videos
B. Apps
C. Social media
D. Job boards
Answer: C. Cyber-vetting is the process of using the Internet to determine an applicant's qualifications for a job. Some studies estimate that more than 70 percent of employers use social media to screen candidates before hiring.
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Question: What is a major advantage of having a return-to-work program for individuals with a non-work-related injury?
A. Increased compliance with workers' compensation laws
B. Preparing for stronger labor laws related to safety
C. Better individual management of work responsibilities
D. All of the above
Answer: C. Studies have found that by allowing individuals with non-work-related injuries to participate in return to work programs, these individuals feel more in control of their responsibilities at work. Helping individuals struggling with disabilities through RTW programs changes their focus from what is a "problem" to the tools they may use for effective management related to their work, attendance, and other outcomes.
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Question: One of your production managers uses incentives to reward employees for meeting operational objectives. This is the best example of which of the following leadership styles? A. Charismatic leadership B. Transactional leadership C. Laissez-faire leadership D. Authoritarian leadership Answer: B. Transactional leaders are characterized by a "this for that" style. These leaders use both rewards and discipline when necessary to accomplish organizational and departmental objectives. ================================================== Question: Consensual romantic relationships at work represent what type of risk? A. Intimate partner violence B. Unlawful treatment C. Sexual harassment D. None, because it's consensual Answer: C. Relationships at work, even those that are consensual, have the potential for issues in which HR will have to intervene. This includes the risk of sexual harassment should the relationship become unwanted by either party. ================================================== Question: The international gas utility company for which you direct HR does not have an organized health and safety program for its workers. What should be your first step? A. Focus on becoming compliant with international, federal, state, and local safety standards. B. Identify the employees who are most at risk and begin safety efforts with them. C. Obtain approval for a company-wide incentive program based on zero accidents or injuries. D. Meet with the workers' compensation brokers to assess the costs of lack of a safety program. See the answer Answer: B. In this high-risk industry, it would be prudent for human resources to begin building a safety program for those workers who are most at risk. This effort may include data collection, incentives, and compliance efforts as part of the overall intervention strategy. ================================================== Question: The food distribution center for which you work has seen an increase in the number of loading-dock workers reporting ankle injuries. What strategy would be most effective to reduce or eliminate the risk? A. Require employees to wear high-top steel-toed work boots. B. Review the injury records for patterns of unsafe behaviors. C. Conduct a root-cause analysis with a committee made up of dock workers. D. Ask the occupational clinic to come in and provide safety training. Answer: C. Any time there is an increase in injuries and accidents, HR should take the time to analyze for root causes. From this, hazard abatement strategies may be developed and could include new personal protective equipment requirements or worker training. ================================================== Question: The major Internet provider for which you are the VP of human resources has just experienced the largest customer and employee data breach in the history of the United States. In an effort to comply with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), you should first do what? A. Evaluate the areas where the company's data is still at risk for hackers B. Research credit monitoring services to offer affected individuals. C. Wait to notify investors until the executive team can sell their shares of company stock. D. Assess the depth of the data breach and notify investors as soon as is practicable. Answer: D. When a data breach of this magnitude occurs, it is important for HR to help the company respond in accordance with governing agencies but also in a manner that protects the interests of both the company and the affected individuals. ================================================== Question: Which of the following are examples of the physical assets that must be secured to prevent a cybersecurity attack? A. The employees B. The buildings C. The workstations D. The power lines Answer: C. Physical assets such as workstations and servers can be tracked and monitored as part of a company's efforts to prevent cyberattacks on sensitive company and customer data. ================================================== Question: Establishing a hierarchy of assets helps companies do what when it comes to data protection? A. Identify priorities when it comes to building a robust data security program B. Determine what skills in data security personnel to hire for C. Write policies that protect critical assets D. Purchase external layers of protections, making the data harder to breach Answer: A. Establishing a hierarchy of assets helps a company craft an effective data security program. Building controls for these assets may include policies, practices, and the deployment of internal and external resources, but it will be difficult to know where to deploy the resources without understanding what is most at risk/important. ================================================== Question: The hospital for which you work has hired an outside agency to staff the parking lot security posts. The guard works only at night and is unsupervised. Recently there has been a rash of attacks in the area against security guards in general. What steps should you take to protect this contingent worker from becoming a victim of workplace violence? A. Allow him to carry his personal gun while on duty. B. Install security cameras that are monitored from the inside. C. Make a business case to the board of directors that this post should have two workers at all times. D. Ask the employment agency to cover the costs of additional security recommendations. Answer: B. In this case, a team approach may work to help minimize an act of workplace violence. Security cameras can act as a deterrent to crime. Having the cameras internally monitored increases the ability for a quick response should an event occur. ================================================== Question: A major sandwich restaurant hires 15-year-old workers to operate a meat slicer. This may violate which of the following? A. The Food and Drug Administration B. Food Safety Management C. The Fair Labor Standards Act D. The Occupational Safety and Health Act Answer: C. The Fair Labor Standards Act addresses more than just legal compensation; it also limits the type of work that may be done by minors. In this example, a meat slicer is considered a hazardous job and is therefore prohibited for workers between the ages of 14 and 15. ================================================== Question: An employee has shared with her manager that she has been prescribed medicine for her bipolar disorder. Which labor laws may need to be considered on her behalf? A. The Americans with Disabilities Act B. The Occupational Safety and Health Act C. The Drug-Free Workplace Act D. Both A and B Answer: A. Mental illnesses are generally covered under the Americans with Disabilities Act and apply to employers with 15 or more employees. This employee may need to be reasonably accommodated as a result of her disability. ================================================== Question: A winery employs hundreds of seasonal, temporary workers that are processed through a staffing agency. Many of them will be working with hazardous chemicals. Which of the following should you do first to comply with OSHA's hazard communication standard? A. Ask the temporary agency to provide general hazardous material-handling training. B. Ensure that the same protections offered to regular workers are offered to temporary workers. C. Ask the agency to come inspect the facility to ensure it is a safe work environment. D. Communicate with the agency regarding what types of protection will be needed. Answer: D. Both the host company and the staffing agency have responsibilities to ensure the safety of individuals who will be working with hazardous materials. Communicating with the agency allows for a coordination of effort, including the need for protection, training, and verifying that the workers are going to a safe workplace. ================================================== Question: A software developer in the Midwest has decided to offer voluntary microchipping of their employees. The chips will be medically inserted into the individual's right hand and will allow employees to open doors, clock in, and even make purchases in the company cafeteria. What type of data is being collected? A. Biometric B. Personal C. Identity D. Medical Answer: C. There are several different ways information can be collected, stored, and eventually utilized in a 21st-century workplace. In this example, the company is using microchips to identify employees. ================================================== Question: Using the information from the previous question, what type of risk is the microchipping employer exposed to? A. Identity theft B. Privacy concerns C. Health risks D. All of the above Answer: D. With implantable technology, there are several types of risk that an employer may need to take steps to minimize. The capabilities and design of the microchip must be reviewed to ensure it does not send information about an employee, unlawfully track employee movements, or cause infection or other health issues. ================================================== Question: Which of the following mitigation efforts will improve data security? A. Purchasing EPL insurance B. A computer monitoring system of employee keystrokes C. Writing a policy that prohibits the sharing of passwords D. Not collecting the data at all Answer: C. In risk management, employers may seek to eliminate, mitigate, or transfer the risk. An example of a mitigation effort is one that reduces—but does not eliminate—the likelihood of a data breach. For that reason, an employer policy that prohibits the sharing of employee passwords is the best answer. ================================================== Question: In the wake of recent workplace violence episodes in the news, your executive team has requested that you put together a written plan that addresses what steps to take should an incident occur at one of your locations. You will most likely need what type of plan? A. Disaster recovery plan B. Incident response plan C. Business continuity plan D. All of the above Answer: B. A written incident response plan can be a critical part of a company's response system should an incident of workplace violence occur. An effective plan should identify manager and employee responsibilities, first responder resources, evacuation and head count procedures, and how to coordinate any media response. ================================================== Question: Your company has a written plan that details the manual workarounds for the company's accounting and payment systems should there be an emergency. This is an example that would be included in what type of plan? A. Business continuity B. Critical incident C. Disaster recovery D. Injury and illness Answer: A. A business continuity plan will most likely detail an information technology (IT) response to the enterprise system of a company. This is needed to get critical business processes that are based on technology back up and running as soon as possible after an incident. ================================================== Question: To comply with SEC rules at your place of business, you should do which of the following? A. Link executive pay to monthly performance measures. B. Disclose executive pay rates to all employees. C. Publish the ratio of executive to employee pay to shareholders. D. All of the above. Answer: C. The SEC adopted new executive pay ratio rules that went into effect in 2017. The rules require a public company to disclose the ratio of the median of the annual total compensation of all employees to the annual total compensation of the CEO. ================================================== Question: Which of the following statements is true about OSHA's Strategic Partnership Program (SPP)? A. It is a coalition of employee groups and unions. B. It is mandatory. C. It requires top management support. D. All of the above Answer: A. OSHA's voluntary Strategic Partnership Program (SPP) brings together unions and employers to adopt a cohesive set of safety standards that address safety hazards in the workplace. ================================================== Question: Of the following, which is most important when it comes to building an effective safety management program? A. Creating a safety culture B. Relevant policies, procedures, and rules C. Top management support D. Approval for personal protective equipment Answer: C. A safety program without the support of top management has an increased chance of failing to address the unique needs of the organization. For example, if the director of HR does not wear her safety glasses in the warehouse, it is unlikely that others will follow the rules either. ================================================== Question: A large employer with multiple facilities all across the United States has decided to raffle off a car at the end of the year. Employees will automatically get one entry for each week that they work without injury. Which of the following is the employer at risk for? A. Tax code violation B. Discrimination C. Retaliation D. None of the above Answer: C. Safety incentive programs that reward employees who do not get injured may inadvertently retaliate against those who do get hurt. Additionally, incentive programs that are too generous may discourage reporting of injuries. ================================================== Question: To be removed from OSHA's routine inspection list, which program should you recommend your employer join? A. Voluntary Protection Program B. Strategic Partnership Program C. Alliance Program D. Consultation Program Answer: A. OSHA's Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) is open to employers that have an effective, well-established safety program. If the employer is accepted into the program, the employer may be removed from routine, scheduled inspection lists. ================================================== Question: Employers have which of the following obligations with regard to international assignee protection? A. They must carry kidnap and ransom insurance for high hazard areas. B. They have a duty of care to take all reasonable steps to protect their expatriates. C. They must have a written crisis management plan in place. D. Employers have the same obligation for international assignees as they do for home country nationals. Answer: B. Employers have a global duty of care to keep international assignees safe. This obligation may take on many forms, but it generally must account for the unique needs of employees that travel or live abroad as part of their work responsibilities. ================================================== Question: Why might it be a good idea to work with an insurance broker if a company decides to place employees on international assignments? A. The broker can help build crisis response plans. B. The broker may have connections to negotiate in a crisis situation. C. The broker may have access to international resources should a medical emergency arise. D. All of the above Answer: D. An employer may decide to purchase additional types of insurance to accommodate the unique needs of international employees. Brokers who provide these types of policies often have resources far beyond the administrative, including navigating the need to negotiate should an event occur and medical or emergency travel services for the employee and family members should the need arise. ================================================== Question: Which of the following strategies would best be served by implementing an RTW program at your place of work? A. The ability to coordinate different types of leave B. Compliance with OSHA standards C. The need to reduce injuries and accidents in the workplace D. The desire to reduce the overall costs of workplace injuries Answer: D. A return-to-work program is one that returns an injured worker back to the job in a modified capacity. Once the injured employee is working modified duty, his pay comes from payroll as opposed to his wages being part of the overall compensation claim. ================================================== Question: Under what conditions may an injured worker's pay be reduced when accepting a modified duty assignment? A. Only if the injured worker is temporarily stationed at a job that normally pays a lower rate B. It depends on the laws of the state in which the injury occurred C. Only if they are doing so for a nonretaliatory reason D. All of the above Answer: D. There are some cases where it is entirely reasonable for an employer to pay a temporarily injured worker a lower wage while on a modified duty assignment. Employers that adopt this strategy must take care that no retaliation is occurring and that they are not violating the laws of the states in which the employee was injured. ================================================== Question: An injured worker has been told by his workers' compensation doctor that he is able to go back to work at full duty. The employee disagrees. What should you recommend? A. Sending him back to a doctor of his choice for a final recommendation B. Discussing an IME with the workers' compensation insurance C. A referral to the company's labor attorney D. Termination of employment if he does not return Answer: B. An independent medical exam (IME) is a useful tool when there is a dispute about an injured worker's abilities. Often binding, it is conducted by a neutral, third-party physician. ================================================== Question: Collective bargaining is best understood as which of the following? A. Implied contract B. Union responsibility C. Employer responsibility D. Statutory right Answer: D. The process of collective bargaining and the resulting agreement is a right granted to employees by way of specific law. In this example, the National Labor Relations Act granted individuals the right to organize and bargain collectively through a union. ================================================== Question: Freedom of speech, due process, and workplace safety are all examples of which of the following? A. Employee responsibilities B. Employee rights C. Employment contract clauses D. Constitutional rights Answer: B. Employee rights can be granted by both federal and state laws. These rights are considered to be absolute and cannot be compromised by employers without penalty or bargained away in an employment contract including a collective bargaining agreement. ================================================== Question: Which of the following agreements may employers have the most legal trouble enforcing? A. Nonsolicitation of current employees B. Arbitration agreements C. Employment contracts D. Noncompete agreements Answer: D. Noncompete agreements are clauses or documents that prohibit a separating employee from competing with the employer in the same line of business for a specified period of time. If these agreements are overly restrictive or in a state that does not allow an employer to prevent an employee from making a living, they may prove difficult to enforce. ================================================== Question: Under what conditions would you recommend to your employer that they adopt a nonpiracy agreement? A. For a high-tech organization to prevent employee poaching B. For a work environment with legally protected trade secrets C. For companies doing business in international waters D. Never—nonpiracy agreements are unlawful. Answer: A. Nonpiracy agreements, in which separating employees agree to not to recruit a company's talent, can be beneficial under the right conditions. As with any of these types of agreements, however, it is best to have them reviewed by legal counsel prior to implementation. ================================================== Question: When an employer terminates the rights of an employee for a discriminatory reason, which of the following is said to have occurred? A. Constructive discharge B. Wrongful discharge C. Reduction in force D. Discharge without cause Answer: B. Wrongful discharge—also called wrongful termination—occurs when an employer terminates an employee for an unlawful reason such as discrimination, failing to break the law on behalf of an employer, or exercising their rights granted by law (right to vote, whistleblowing, etc.). ================================================== Question: In the absence of an employment contract or collective bargaining agreement, when may an employee expect to only be terminated for cause? A. If they are a protected class individual B. If there is a progressive discipline policy in the handbook C. If their behavior was first investigated by management D. None of the above Answer: D. The concept of "just cause" is that employees may expect that employment at will does not apply to them. This condition may be met only when there is an employment contract (written or implied) or when the employee is covered by a collective bargaining agreement. ================================================== Question: An employee has been terminated for "just cause." Which of the following reasons is most likely? A. The employee refused to forge his boss's signature on a document. B. The employee violated the employer's anti-harassment rules. C. The employee was late because he went to vote in the presidential election. D. The employee was a whistleblower who filed a report of corruption that turned out to be inaccurate. Answer: B. "Just cause" is a concept that describes an employer's justification for taking employment action. It cannot be used as a reason for termination if the employee refused to break the law or exercised a statutory right. ================================================== Question: Augustine filed a grievance with HR because he believed that a supervisor gave Amy—Augustine's co-worker—a higher raise than Augustine received because the supervisor is trying to date Amy. This is an example of which of the following? A. Sexual harassment B. Distributive justice C. Discriminatory treatment D. Both A and B Answer: B. An employee's perception of fair treatment is influenced by many factors. In this scenario, Augustine believes that the outcome (pay increases) was unfair. ================================================== Question: In compulsory arbitration, which of the following conditions is nearly always included? A. The employee exchanges the right to sue the employer. B. An arbitrator is selected from the American Arbitration Association (AAA). C. There is a written arbitration agreement reviewed by legal counsel. D. All of the above Answer: D. Employers may choose to adopt arbitration practices for many reasons. One is the rising cost of legal fees associated with fighting employment-related disputes. Another is to ensure employees receive due process. Regardless of the reasons, arbitration best practices include a waiver of employee right to sue after an agreement has been settled; the use of a professional, neutral arbitrator; and a signed, written agreement that has been approved by counsel. ================================================== Question: Which of the following should not be included in an employee's regular personnel file because of privacy concerns? A. Application for employment B. Historical records older than three years C. Medical benefits claims data D. Performance reviews Answer: C. Companies must take steps to address employee privacy concerns in all HR practices. This includes properly storing records that have information related to an employee's medical condition or history. ================================================== Question: Of the following recognition programs, which is not entitlement-oriented? A. Service awards B. Employee of the month C. Sales awards D. Longevity bonus Answer: C. Employee recognition practices are similar to pay practices in that they can be entitlement-oriented or performance-based. Recognition for sales efforts (quotas, new customers, account retention) is based on employee performance. ================================================== Question: Multicultural work teams, training, and mentoring systems may all be part of what type of human resource program? A. Diversity program B. Climate program C. Anti-harassment program D. Equal Employment Opportunity program Answer: A. Diversity programs have many components that, when combined, make them an effective tool used to promote a positive organizational culture. These components can include committees, work teams, training, mentoring, and the evaluation of results for reporting and refinement. ================================================== Question: Discourteous behavior can quickly escalate to which of the following problems? A. Unlawful harassment B. Violation of a company's code of conduct C. Workplace violence D. All of the above Answer: D. What starts out as mere lack of etiquette or discourteous behavior can quickly escalate if left unchecked. For this reason, it is imperative that HR address expected standards of behavior in an employee handbook as well as in practice. ================================================== Question: The company you work for gives all employees an annual bonus right around Christmas time. The amount is dependent upon company profitability. This effort is best represented by which of the following? A. A generous employer B. An entitlement-oriented incentive C. A company recognition program D. A way to keep overtime costs down Answer: C. Employee recognition programs can be individually based or company-wide. They can be especially effective when employees understand how their behaviors contributed to the company's success. ================================================== Question: Under which of the following conditions may an employer avoid a claim of defamation when providing an employment reference for a former employee? A. When the information shared is truthful B. When the employer provides only dates of employment and a job title C. When the employer has received written authorization from the employee to disclose personnel information D. All of the above Answer: D. The best defense against a claim of defamation is to be truthful, clear, and unequivocal when providing an employment reference. Many employers are also able to avoid a charge of defamation by only giving out information that is factual, such as dates of employment or a job title. In some cases, former employees will provide written authorization for a previous employer to share information from their personnel record, providing some management of risk against a defamation charge. ================================================== Question: In a union environment, an employee who believes that he has been unfairly passed over for promotion should file which of the following? A. A complaint B. A grievance C. A charge of discrimination D. A charge of harassment Answer: B. A grievance is a formal written complaint filed when an employee has moved beyond simply feeling dissatisfied. In a union environment, HR and the union will most likely have a formal grievance procedure. ================================================== Question: An employee is called to his supervisor's office, believing that he will be disciplined. Accordingly, he requests that his union steward be present for the meeting. His supervisor denies the request, violating which of the following employee rights? A. Statutory B. Due process C. Weingarten D. Privacy Answer: C. Named after the court case that established them, Weingarten rights grant covered employees the right to have representation in disciplinary meetings. ================================================== Question: What recourse is available for an employee who was denied his Weingarten rights and, in the process, was terminated? A. Reinstatement B. The right to sue for criminal damage C. The right to sue for civil damages D. Back pay and reinstatement Answer: D. If an employee is dismissed or otherwise harmed by a decision that violated his rights to representation in disciplinary meetings, he may be entitled to back pay and reinstatement. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is occurring when a third party settles disputes that occur as the result of differences in the interpretation of a collective bargaining agreement? A. Collective bargaining B. Labor negotiations C. Labor strike D. Grievance arbitration Answer: D. Grievance arbitration involves a neutral third party to settle disputes that are rooted in different interpretations of a labor contract. This process is different from issues arbitration, which utilizes a neutral third party to settle disputes regarding how a contract will be written. ================================================== Question: Engineers, nurses, and physicians would most likely belong to what type of union? A. Nongovernmental B. Professional C. Industrial D. Services Answer: B. As a result of the general decline in union membership over the years, unions have targeted specific industries and types of workers. The unionization of professional workers such as nurses and engineers are examples of this. ================================================== Question: Janitors, building cleaners, and meatpacking workers are examples of which groups targeted by unions over the last several years? A. Low skilled B. Professional C. Contingent D. Part-time Answer: A. Unions have successfully organized low-skilled workers mainly because of the hard work, low pay, and difficult working conditions characterized by these types of jobs. ================================================== Question: A shift of a union's focus to issues of pay equity and flexible work arrangements is most likely an effort to organize which type of worker? A. Millennials B. Blue collar C. Women D. Liberal Answer: C. The growing percentage of women in the workforce has forced unions to alter their focus on issues that matter to this demographic. These issues include child, paid family leave, maternity leave, pay equity, and flexible work arrangements, just to name a few. ================================================== Question: Which disciplinary approach establishes the expectation in employees that they will progress through a series of steps when being disciplined? A. Positive B. Progressive C. Coaching D. Self Answer: B. Progressive discipline policies involve the establishment of a series of steps. These steps often include some variation of a series of verbal, written, and final written warnings that, if unmet, will eventually result in termination. ================================================== Question: Which of the following are formal systems designed to obtain employee feedback? A. Suggestion systems B. Focus groups C. Surveys D. All of the above Answer: D. Gathering feedback is an important element of employee relations systems. It is the only way HR may design or recommend changes that will truly influence employee satisfaction. Common ways to obtain feedback include suggestion boxes, focus groups, and employee surveys. ================================================== Question: Technological methods with which to obtain employee feedback include which of the following? A. Focus groups B. Teleconferencing C. Videos D. Instant messaging Answer: B. The rise of technology has opened up many digital options for HR seeking to obtain employee feedback. Teleconferencing involves satellite technology that is designed to link facilities and groups for the purpose of exchanging feedback, information, and ideas. ================================================== Question: Internal methods of communicating with employees include which of the following? A. Intranet postings B. Newsletters C. Instant messaging D. All of the above Answer: D. Organizations have many internal options to choose from when needing to communicate with their talent. These methods include employee newsletters, videos, and postings on company intranets, memos, and staff meetings. ================================================== Question: Taylor has been frequently absent from work over the last three months, so much so that she has violated the company's attendance policy. The supervisor has come to you for advice on how to proceed. Which of the following options puts the company at the most risk? A. Discuss with the supervisor the reasons for the absences B. Review with the supervisor any relevant documentation C. Review the days missed to look for trends D. Proceed directly with the discipline Answer: D. At the center of taking any action against a worker is the need to consider employee rights. In this scenario, there are several labor laws that may be applicable for Taylor's case. At this stage, HR's best role is to help the supervisor gather and review as much relevant information as possible before making a decision to proceed with the discipline. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is the role of a supervisor—not human resources—when disciplining an employee? A. Make the decision to discipline B. Train managers on disciplinary actions C. Design disciplinary procedures D. Understand labor laws related to employee rights Answer: A. HR often serves in an advisory capacity when the need for discipline arises. Generally, it is up to the direct supervisor or manager to ultimately make the decision to discipline their employee. ================================================== Question: The best discipline could be described as which of the following? A. Training B. Self-discipline C. Progressive D. All of the above Answer: B. Most employees genuinely want to succeed in their work environment. When they clearly understand the behavioral expectations and outcomes, most will apply the proper levels of self-discipline to be successful in their jobs. ================================================== Question: Chuck has been struggling with having a positive attitude at work. You and his supervisor met with Chuck to make him aware of the behavioral expectations. As a result, Chuck's attitude improves. This approach is a characteristic of which type of discipline? A. Counseling B. Progressive C. Positive D. Mentoring Answer: C. Positive discipline approaches are characterized by constructive partnerships between the employee, manager, and human resources. The goal is to clearly communicate the expectations for behavior and engage in joint problem-solving. ================================================== Question: Of the following, which is the most challenging issue when implementing a positive discipline approach? A. Gaining employee buy-in B. Monitoring for consistent practices C. Writing a legally compliant policy D. The time it takes to train managers Answer: D. The positive approach to discipline focuses on joint problem-solving as opposed to a series of progressive consequences of employee behavioral issues. It requires extensive training for managers and supervisors to both understand and apply behavioral science theories such motivation and performance coaching. ================================================== Question: You are the senior labor relations specialist at your place of work, and the company has an existing progressive discipline policy and practice. Under this policy, which of the following employee offenses would most likely lead to immediate termination? A. Falsifying an employment application B. Insubordination C. Safety rule violation D. Excessive tardiness Answer: A. Progressive discipline policies include a series of steps (verbal, written, final written, etc.) to address employee performance deficiencies. There are certain egregious offenses, however, in which an employee may be immediately discharged. These include falsifying an employment application, theft, and alcohol or drug use at work. ================================================== Question: Why might a manager be reluctant to discipline an employee? A. Fear of conflict B. Guilt C. Fear of lawsuits D. All of the above Answer: D. There are many reasons managers may hesitate to discipline their employees. Some supervisors are not effective conflict managers, while others may know that they (and others) are guilty of similar offenses. The fear of the company or they themselves being sued may also influence a manager's decision to take corrective action to resolve negative employee behaviors. ================================================== Question: Which of the following are mandatory notices for an employee who has been discharged? A. COBRA notification B. Severance agreement C. Employee Change in Status form D. Both A and C Answer: A. Notification requirements at the time of employee separation can vary greatly between federal and state regulations as well as between individual employer practices. Of the options, only the COBRA notification for continuation of health benefits is federally mandated for covered employers. ================================================== Question: To be effective, HR policies should be which of the following? A. Effective B. Relevant C. Legal D. All of the above Answer: D. Written policies for the sake of having policies can cause employers all sorts of problems, from implementation to managing risk. It is important that human resources evaluate all current and potential policies to ensure that they are relevant, effective, and legal. ================================================== Question: You received an urgent call from management saying that the surveillance system caught an employee downloading a customer list to a thumb drive. What should you advise? A. Confront the employee and immediately search them and their belongings. B. Call the police. C. Confront the employee and show the proof of the theft. D. Nothing; employee surveillance is unlawful. Answer: C. HR is often called in to help with investigations of employee wrongdoing. Of the options presented, confronting the employee and showing the proof of the theft should be enough to either get the employee to confess or to terminate the employee for cause. ================================================== Question: How are procedures different from policies? A. Procedures are general guidelines for employee behaviors. B. Policies are more specific than procedures. C. Procedures are more specific than policies. D. There is no difference. Answer: C. Policies are general guidelines for both company and employee behaviors. Procedures, on the other hand, are more specific practices of how processes should be completed or systems should be implemented. ================================================== Question: Your company handbook includes the statement "Employees are prohibited from alcohol use at work." This is an example of which of the following? A. Policy B. Procedure C. Rule D. All of the above Answer: C. A rule is a specific guideline that serves to restrict certain employee behaviors. Often found in the handbook under "Code of Conduct," rules are written so there is very little interpretation needed as to their meaning. ================================================== Question: Which of the following phrases should be eliminated from a company handbook? A. Permanent employee B. Probation period C. No social media use D. All of the above Answer: D. There are many risks that can be created simply by the language used in a company handbook. The term permanent employee dilutes employment at will, and a probationary period—as opposed to an introductory period—does the same. Prohibiting social media use completely can erode an employee's right to engage in protected concerted activity under the National Labor Relations Act. ================================================== Question: "This employee handbook is not intended to be part of a contract..." is being used in an employee handbook to preserve which of the following? A. Employee rights B. Employer rights C. Employment at will D. The public policy exception Answer: C. Disclaimers such as the one in the question are used to preserve the nature of at-will employment between the employer and employee. ================================================== Question: Your company CEO recorded a "state of the company" video and asked you to post it on the company intranet. This is an example of what type of communication? A. Upward communication B. Downward communication C. Electronic communication D. Digital communication Answer: B. Downward communication flows from executives, managers, and supervisors down to the employees. ================================================== Question: A safety suggestion system is an example of which of the following? A. Employee survey B. Downward communication C. Upward communication D. Incentive Answer: C. Any type of suggestion system allows an upward flow of communication from employees to management. ================================================== Question: The large hotel you work for asks guests to complete cards commenting on the level of service they received from the workers. These results are most likely used by human resources to do what? A. Recognize employees B. Discipline employees C. Refine procedures D. All of the above Answer: D. Gathering feedback from both internal and external sources is a critical task for human resources. Feedback can be used to recognize, reward, and discipline employees but also to inform organizational decision-making to improve procedures. ================================================== Question: Which of the following requires employers to provide jobs and a workplace environment that are free from recognized safety and health hazards? A. An emergency action plan B. The Control of Hazardous Energy standard C. The General Duty standard D. The Hazard Communication standard Answer: C. The General Duty standard emphasizes the need for employers to protect employees from hazards, even in the absence of a specific directive (standard) to do so. In addition, they have a general duty to comply with all applicable standards that pertain to their workplace. ================================================== Question: Workplace violence, theft, and computer hackers are all classified as which of the following types of risk? A. Security B. Health C. Safety D. Financial Answer: A. Security risks are those that affect the financial, physical, informational, or human assets of an organization. ================================================== Question: Which of the following types of risk is associated with embezzling? A. Legal B. Safety and health C. Security D. Workplace privacy Answer: C. Security risks are associated with financial operations and practices in addition to securing the physical assets of a business. ================================================== Question: The controller of your organization was caught paying herself for additional vacation time that was never authorized or approved. Additionally, she coded the transactions so that they did not show up under G&A payroll but rather as a production expense. This is an example of which of the following? A. Fraudulent activity B. Deception C. Forgery D. Misrepresentation of financial statements Answer: A. Employee embezzlement or theft is a type of fraud committed against the employer and is subject to prosecution. ================================================== Question: Natural disasters and terrorism are both threats to which of the following? A. Employee safety and health B. Resource availability C. Business continuity D. All of the above Answer: D. Incidents such as natural disasters, terrorism, workplace violence, and loss of utilities are threats to more than just employee safety. These events may disrupt services from resources such as police and fire, as well as impact a business's ability to continue offering services or shipping products. ================================================== Question: A review of the human capital management plan (HCMP) is most likely to occur in what type of audit? A. Risk assessment B. HR C. GAAP D. Internal revenue (tax) Answer: B. A human resource audit is a type of assessment used to gather information about an organization that can be used in decision-making. Evaluating the HCMP is useful to gather data about employee skillsets and future plans to make decisions about current and future staffing levels. ================================================== Question: As the HR manager for a small construction firm, you have begun to notice an increase in falls at various work sites. So far, no one has been seriously injured; in fact, the employees joke about their "close calls." Which of the following should you do? A. Discipline employees for not taking safety risks seriously B. Conduct worksite inspections to identify potential fall hazards C. Retrain employees in your company's fall protection procedures D. Nothing yet, as no injuries have occurred Answer: B. Any time there is an uptick in near misses, a company should take notice. Encouraging employees to speak up will help identify potential hazards and allow for a preventive response. Site walk-throughs can help identify hazards, as well as give HR the opportunity to talk with employees about what might help to keep a near miss from becoming an injury. ================================================== Question: The manager of the marketing department established a goal for his staff that directed them to double unique web traffic to the website within 90 days. If they accomplish this goal, the department will evenly split a bonus among them. The manager is most likely using which performance management technique? A. SMART B. MBO C. 360 D. Forced distribution Answer: B. Management by objectives (MBO) is characterized by an agreement between a manager and employee that ideally cascades down from a company's strategic plan. ================================================== Question: Why is it important to have a nonunion philosophy statement? A. It supports an open door policy for employees to discuss wages and working conditions directly with the employer. B. It gives employers the opportunity to respond to dissatisfiers prior to the relationship becoming adversarial. C. Once a union has petitioned for an election, an employer's right to communicate is restricted. D. All of the above Answer: D. Employers often hesitate to even mention the word union for fear that it will give the employees ideas. However, a nonunion philosophy serves to communicate to employees the employer's desire to hear their grievances directly and provides the employer with the opportunity to respond before they are required to do so under strict regulations. ================================================== Question: One of the company's best performers is extremely self-managed and able to follow all rules and procedures with very little direction or feedback. This employee is most likely high in which personality characteristic? A. Neuroticism B. Conscientiousness C. Awareness D. Emotional intelligence Answer: B. In personality theory, conscientiousness has been linked to successful employee outcomes. This trait is characterized by employees who follow all rules and procedures and have a general sense of care about the well-being of others. ================================================== Question: Organizational citizenship behaviors are marked by which of the following individual characteristics? A. Sportsmanship, altruism, and conscientiousness B. Courtesy, civic virtue, and pride C. Conscientiousness, courtesy, and altruism D. Conscientiousness, civic virtue, and emotional intelligence Answer: C. Organizational citizenship behaviors have been linked to individual traits including conscientiousness, courtesy, altruism, sportsmanship, and civic virtue. ================================================== Question: The investment of physical, emotional, and cognitive resources best describes which of the following? A. Employee engagement B. Job satisfaction C. Organizational commitment D. Employee relations Answer: A. Employee engagement is a term that has lacked coherent application in many organizations. Organizational scientists have found some agreement, however, in that engagement behaviors include the investment of personal energies such as physical, emotional, and cognitive into the work tasks themselves. ================================================== Question: Which of the following terms describes an organization that is rigidly devoted to polices, rules, and procedures? A. Centralized B. Formal C. Decentralized D. Bureaucratic Answer: D. A bureaucratic organization is one that is characterized by administrative workflow, rigid policies, and procedures. These types of structures evolved from the shift of small family-owned farms and businesses to organizations that employed hundreds of people as the result of the Industrial Revolution. ================================================== Question: Which of the following conditions is most likely to improve employee productivity according to humanistic theories of motivation? A. More qualified supervisors B. Improved tools and equipment C. Management attention and feedback D. Equal rewards Answer: C. The focus of the humanistic theories of motivation is on the psychological conditions under which people work. According to these theories, the psychological conditions under which employees work are just as important as the environmental conditions. ================================================== Question: The consideration of employee inputs, work processes, and outputs are at the heart of which category of organizational theories? A. Systems B. Humanistic C. Bureaucratic D. Relational Answer: A. Systems theories view organizations as a "whole" entity as opposed to focusing on a single part. These theories consider the inputs, the throughputs, and the outputs of a company along with the context (political, economic) in which they perform. ================================================== Question: Which of the following intervention strategies should you recommend to an employer wanting to improve creativity and innovation in the workplace? A. Create a bonus program. B. Increase diversity. C. Improve the quality of tools and equipment to encourage these outcomes. D. Allow employees to adjust their schedules based on project needs. Answer: B. Traditional application of many motivation theories is based on increasing rewards or punishment. Studies have found that this does not work when it comes to improving creativity; in fact, it actually narrows the focus to simply getting the reward. Increasing diversity has been shown to open up creative processes by gaining multiple perspectives and different ways of thinking. ================================================== Question: The desire to do something that matters is an example of what type of reward? A. Psychological B. Direct C. Extrinsic D. Intrinsic Answer: D. Intrinsic rewards are those that come from within. Employees who perform because they like the work or take pride in their effort are said to be intrinsically motivated. ================================================== Question: Which of the following management techniques should you recommend to an employer that requires immediate compliance from their employees, such as for air traffic controllers or emergency dispatchers? A. Decentralized B. Self-direction C. Open systems D. Traditional Answer: D. Management as a practice has had to evolve as the nature of business has evolved. Traditional forms of management made up of hierarchies, policies, and rules are most effective in environments where high degrees of compliance are necessary or desired. ================================================== Question: The customer service representatives at your business are experiencing high degrees of burnout because 90 percent of their calls are from disgruntled customers. Which of the following is the most likely source of their burnout? A. Low emotional intelligence B. High degree of emotional labor C. Negative collective affect D. Low pay Answer: B. Emotional labor is the degree of effort it takes to manage emotions at work. In customer service settings, for example, an employee may get frustrated with an angry customer but must mask their true feelings to meet customer demands. ================================================== Question: An employee complains to their supervisor that another employee is always late, stating that "it must be because he is lazy and just doesn't want to come to work." The next day, the complaining employee was late, and when asked why, he stated that "construction on his normal commute was heavier than usual that day." The complaining employee is most likely making what type of error? A. Values-based B. Discrimination C. Bias D. Fundamental attribution Answer: D. The fundamental attribution error states that people have a tendency to attribute other people's negative behavior to an internal character flaw and their own negative behaviors to a cause of the situation. ================================================== Question: The president of the company you work for wants to embark on a cost savings initiative throughout all departments. All employees will receive a percentage of the savings at the end of the year. This is an example of what type of compensation program? A. Deferred compensation B. Gain-sharing C. Discretionary bonus D. Commission Answer: B. A gainsharing plan is a type of compensation that is tied to performance. It can be the result of either increased revenue or cost-saving activities. ================================================== Question: Which of the following theories of motivation looks at how people compare their efforts with their rewards? A. Equity B. Intrinsic C. Extrinsic D. Systems Answer: A. Equity theories of motivation pivot on the idea that employees are motivated most by when their inputs (what they put into the job) are equal to the rewards (what they receive in return). ================================================== Question: Many employees are struggling to perform under the new management structure that has recently been put into place. Their primary concern is that they don't know how long the new structure will hold, simply because the company has tried it before and it didn't work. As a result, they are hesitant to invest too much effort into the new requirements. This is an example of which of the following conditions of change? A. Freezing B. Norming C. Change uncertainty D. Change avoidance Answer: C. Change uncertainty is a source of stress for employees that is directly tied to changes in the workplace. It occurs in the context of employees being uncertain as to how a change will affect them personally, their department, or the company as a whole. ================================================== Question: Organizational development is made up of which of the following scientific domains? A. Social psychology B. Industrial-organizational psychology C. Applied psychology D. All of the above Answer: D. Organizational development consists of a series of interventions that may address strategic, operational, or human resource-style challenges. As a result, OD consists of scientific theories designed to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being, all of which must be applied in a workplace setting. ================================================== Question: Fill in the blanks: _____________ are a creative tool used for brainstorming that is more restrictive than _____________. A. Focus groups; employee surveys B. Nominal groups; the Delphi technique C. Employee surveys; focus groups D. Mind-maps; the Medici approach Answer: B. Nominal groups and the Delphi technique are often confused with one another. A nominal group can meet face to face, but the discussions are more tightly controlled/facilitated than in the Delphi approach. Both are used to reach consensus in decision-making. ================================================== Question: A local gym recently sold the rights to another company to use their name, supply chain resources, and workflow processes in another city. This is an example of what type of business structure? A. Subsidiary B. Merger C. Joint venture D. Franchising Answer: D. Franchising is a business structure in which one company licenses the rights to another business to use their brand, supply chain, and workflow practices. Ownership remains separate in this type of structure. ================================================== Question: Which of the following types of budgets starts from scratch each year? A. Incremental B. Bottom up C. Zero-based D. Top-down Answer: C. Zero-based budgets are not built upon the previous year's spending. This approach allows departments to build budgets that are more in line with a company's strategic plan and business objectives. ================================================== Question: Cost savings, availability of talent, and specialized expertise are all reasons for HR to recommend which of the following staffing strategies? A. Co-sourcing B. Temporary workers C. Professional employer organizations D. Part-time workers Answer: A. Co-sourcing is an alternative staffing strategy that can lend itself to several positive outcomes. Often used when talent is scarce or for project-based work, co-sourcing can result in cost savings when leveraged properly. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is an example of a business operating expense? A. Salaries B. Rent C. Software licenses D. All of the above Answer: D. Business operating expenses such as salaries, rent, equipment, technology, benefits, and more all make up a company's overhead. For HR purposes, labor is often the largest expense, followed closely by employee benefits. ================================================== Question: In your HR department, one employee is responsible for recruiting, selection, and safety; another is responsible for performance management; and a third person is responsible for employee relations and separations. This is an example of what element of a business structure? A. Span of control B. Hierarchy of authority C. Division of labor D. Generalists and specialists Answer: C. Division of labor is a term that identifies the responsibilities of each individual within a department or company. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is not an example of a line manager? A. HR manager B. Production manager C. Sales manager D. All of the above are line managers. Answer: A. The key distinction between line and staff management is revenue generation. Line managers are those who are responsible for processes and people who generate revenue for a business. Staff managers are those who support line managers such as accounting, IT, and HR. ================================================== Question: Which of the following sources of data should you trust the most when it comes to building wage bands? A. Professional wage surveys B. Government wage data tables C. Internet sources such as salary.com or monster.com D. Local industry groups Answer: B. There are many external sources of information related to how HR makes decisions. In terms of credibility, HR should rely on evidence-based tools such as governmental, academic, or scientific resources that have been proven valid and reliable. ================================================== Question: You are in the final decision-making meeting related to the hiring of a budget analyst. The salary range for the position is between $80,000 and $120,000, and you didn't really plan to pay on the high end. During negotiations, the applicant states that she is looking for a minimum of $130,000 plus bonus. As a result, you decide to offer the candidate a starting salary of $115,000. Which type of bias has possibly occurred? A. Confirmation bias B. Availability bias C. Anchoring bias D. No bias occurred because you were still within range. Answer: C. Anchoring bias in negotiations occurs when an individual starts with a higher dollar amount, thus anchoring that amount in your mind as a starting point. In this case, you did not plan to pay on the high end of the range, but the candidate starting point was high enough to get you to change your behavior and offer more than intended. ================================================== Question: Knowledge, experience, and future competencies of employees all represent which of the following? A. Human capital B. Human resources C. Interpersonal skills D. Psychological capital Answer: A. Employee knowledge, talents, and skills that add value to an organization all make up what is called human capital. The availability of future skillsets for which an employer may compete is included in this category; for this reason, human capital management plans focus on both acquiring and retaining a qualified workforce. ================================================== Question: By keeping the principles of VUCA in mind—conditions that are volatile, uncertain, complex, and ambiguous—what type of talent acquisition strategy should HR business partners develop? A. Single-scenario planning B. Multiple-scenario planning C. Best-case scenario planning D. Worst-case scenario planning Answer: B. VUCA conditions are the "new normal" for business and HR. The best answer then is to plan for multiple scenarios and outcomes, including both best- and worst-case situations. ================================================== Question: New hires at the giant retailer for which you work are told that "putting employees first" is the company's highest value. Which of the following conditions would most directly contradict this company value? A. Lack of time-off flexibility B. Multiple lawsuits from former employees C. Refusing to accommodate military leave requests D. Highly routinized jobs in which employees are easily replaced Answer: A. While all the conditions in the options contribute to high turnover, lack of non-legally required time-off flexibility for employees is the most contradictory to a company that states that serving employees is their highest value. ================================================== Question: What is the main benefit of transactional onboarding practices? A. Employee acculturation B. Increased retention in the first six months of employment C. Improved employee satisfaction D. Making processes more efficient Answer: D. Transactional orientation and onboarding practices include automating processes such as Form I-9 and W-4 processing. Transactional practices increase efficiencies through automation while at the same time helping employers manage the risks associated with processing errors. ================================================== Question: A corporation that franchises its business model also requires its franchisees to use their computer system to process employee payroll. This practice is most likely to trigger which of the following conditions? A. A claim of indirect control B. The ostensible agency theory C. Joint employment liability D. All of the above Answer: D. As McDonald's Corporation discovered, certain practices with its franchisees led to a charge that the corporation indirectly controlled the conditions of employees, causing them to "ostensibly" believe that they were employees of McDonald's Corporation, not only of the franchise. For this reason, the National Labor Relations Board revised their definition of joint employment, and franchise employees were allowed to sue the corporation and franchisee in a class action wage and hour lawsuit. ================================================== Question: What is the primary difference between andragogy and pedagogy—how adults and children learn? A. Adults learn using visual, auditory, and tactile skills; children are mostly tactile. B. Adults collect information for immediate use; children acquire general knowledge to be used in the future. C. Adults are dependent upon others to acquire useful knowledge; children are more independent and explorative. D. There are no real differences between adult and child learning principles. Answer: B. Malcolm Knowles conducted foundational research in andragogy—how adults learn. One finding was that adults orient toward learning that is focused on practical problem-solving or immediate use. Children, however, are taught to orient more toward general knowledge to be used at a future date. ================================================== Question: An employer who seeks to pay all employees within the 50th percentile of the labor market is using what type of compensation strategy? A. Quartile B. Entitlement C. Performance D. Equity Answer: A. A quartile compensation strategy seeks to align wage bands to the relevant labor market. It relies on valid market data to properly build wage ranges, from which employee pay decisions are made. ================================================== Question: A cost-of-living pay adjustment is the best example of what type of compensation strategy? A. Quartile B. Entitlement C. Performance D. Equity Answer: B. Entitlement forms of pay are those that reward employees for years of service or for loyalty. A cost-of-living adjustment is not given based on any particular performance criteria; therefore, it is a form of entitlement pay. ================================================== Question: The large bank you work for has reached out to its major competitors to see whether they would all agree to not pay above the 25th percentile for all management positions. This, they argue, will allow each institution to fairly compete for talent. This agreement is most likely to come under fire from which agency? A. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission B. The Department of Labor C. The Department of Justice D. The National Labor Relations Board Answer: C. The Department of Justice (DOJ) is responsible for litigation related to violations of the Sherman Antitrust act. This act prohibits price fixing of any sort, including market-based pay. ================================================== Question: Technocorp Inc. is located in the Silicon Valley of California but shares 51 percent of its ownership with a parent company in Puerto Rico. This is most likely what type of business entity? A. Multinational corporation B. Franchise C. Joint venture D. Foreign subsidiary Answer: D. A foreign subsidiary is a legal term defining ownership. A company that is more than 50 percent owned or controlled by a parent company in another country is a foreign subsidiary. ================================================== Question: Fiduciary responsibility applies to which of the following? A. A human resource professional B. A board of directors C. A chief financial officer D. All of the above Answer: D. Fiduciary responsibility applies to many individuals with positions of authority within an organization. Fiduciary responsibility requires that these individuals act without self-interest, making quality decisions that serve all company stakeholders. ================================================== Question: Overpopulation, poverty, and lack of clean water are all global issues that many businesses are tackling with the help of which of the following? A. Community organizers B. Nongovernment organizations (NGOs) C. Agencies such as the American Red Cross D. Other business leaders Answer: B. Nongovernment organizations are gaining in popularity as a tool to help global and multinational businesses engage in social responsibility initiatives. NGOs are typically nonprofit, voluntary, and independent of any particular government. ================================================== Question: Many employers are researching and switching to health insurance captives for which of the following reasons? A. It can control costs of health insurance. B. It allows employers to purchase stop-loss insurance for larger claims. C. Claims data is more controlled and thus utilized to make decisions about benefits. D. All of the above Answer: D. Many experts believe that the use of self-funded health insurance "captives" will only continue to grow. This is because businesses are finding that they can more effectively control the cost of benefits plans through the use of data to shape benefits offerings to employees and predict exposure. It also allows employers to purchase stop-loss insurance, which can be used to cover the costs of catastrophic years. ================================================== Question: Wendy is the director of HR at a large multinational corporation. She extended the open enrollment period for benefits to accommodate her spouse, who required a different plan. This is an example of which of the following? A. Breach of company trust B. Exercising a choice-of-law clause C. Breaking the law D. Unethical conduct Answer: D. Human resource professionals have high ethical standards that must be adhered to. This includes not using their decision-making authority to meet personal needs or commitments. ================================================== Question: Fill in the blanks: _____________ refers to the way an employee feels when working on job tasks, whereas _____________ refers to an evaluation of the organization as a whole. A. Work engagement; organizational commitment B. Organizational commitment; work engagement C. Work engagement; job satisfaction D. Job satisfaction; work engagement Answer: A. Many HR practitioners and businesses use the terms work engagement and job satisfaction interchangeably. Organizational science has found that work engagement refers to how employees feel about the job tasks, whereas organizational commitment refers to how employees feel about the company as a whole. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is the most fundamental component of workforce planning? A. Job pricing B. Job design C. Job evaluation D. Job analysis Answer: D. Job analysis is the process used to define a job in terms of its component tasks from which all other HR practices and strategies may be built. ================================================== Question: When calculating the number of new hires in a 12-month period, you drop the oldest number when a recent month is added. This is an example of what type of quantitative analysis? A. Mean B. Central tendency C. Rolling average D. Weighted average Answer: C. A rolling average—sometimes called a moving average—is used to calculate an average for a specific period of time. In this scenario, as a new month is added, the oldest number is dropped. ================================================== Question: Which of the following tools should you first use when considering the integration of an HRIS system into your workplace? A. Results from a needs analysis B. The ROI of the system C. An RFP D. The proposed system's features and benefits Answer: A. When considering the implementation of any new technology, HR must consider the needs that the company is seeking to meet. A needs analysis will provide information to help calculate the return on the investment, as well as identify what information suppliers should include in a request for proposal. ================================================== Question: A business case can help management make better-quality decisions because it does which of the following? A. Communicates how a plan will influence operational efficiencies B. Provides multiple options for solving a business problem C. Describes possible risks that could result from taking action D. Quantitatively analyzes relevant HR trends Answer: C. The main purpose of building a business case is to help an employer make a decision on a particular course of action. This includes a description of the potential risks of taking—or in some cases, not taking—action. ================================================== Question: Under what conditions should you recommend that an employer require an employee to take a polygraph test? A. If you believe an employee is under the influence of a drug at work B. If you believe the controller embezzled funds C. If an employee accuses another employee of violent behavior D. Never, because polygraph tests are unlawful. Answer: B. The Department of Labor allows private employers to commission polygraph tests for employees under certain conditions, including when an employee is suspected of theft or embezzlement. The administration of the test, however, must be done by a licensed professional, with the results kept confidential. ================================================== Question: The company you work for prefers a flat-line decision-making structure. They strive to grant as much decision-making power to the employees as possible and tie pay directly to performance outcomes when possible. This is most likely what type of organization? A. A high-involvement organization B. A learning organization C. An Internet start-up D. A nonprofit Answer: A. High-involvement organizations are those that seek to give authority to all levels of employees. These organizations are defined by flat-line structures, transparency, and pay for performance compensation programs. ================================================== Question: Which of the following job characteristics contribute most to a sense of employee ownership over outcomes? A. Task significance and autonomy B. Autonomy and feedback C. Skill variety and task identity D. Task significance and feedback Answer: B. The job characteristics model describes the influence of job design on worker engagement and ownership. Specifically, research has found that allowing employees to control their work (autonomy) and providing them with meaningful feedback increases a sense of responsibility and ownership of their jobs. ================================================== Question: During training, you notice that an employee rapidly learns the new material that is exciting. After she has mastered the task, there is really not much else to learn. She most likely is experiencing which type of learning curve? A. Positively accelerating B. S-shaped C. Plateau D. Negatively accelerating Answer: D. A negatively accelerating learning curve is characterized by rapid learning at the beginning of training, with a tapering off as the skills are mastered. ================================================== Question: A large network software firm creates a program for women in leadership. Participants meet every month for a year to provide peer support toward taking on more leadership tasks or roles. At the end of the third year, more than 100 women have graduated from the program. This company is engaged in which of the following? A. Diversity-based networking B. Learning circles C. Executive groups D. Incubators Answer: B. Learning circles are called many things (Socratic circles, quality circles, etc.), but all have a similar purpose. Learning circles are generally organized around a theme or purpose and are characterized by diversity, respect, and collaboration toward success in specific outcomes or targets. ================================================== Question: Many states have recently adopted laws that forbid employers from asking applicants about their prior salary history. This is known as what type of law? A. Anti-harassment laws B. Wage and hour laws C. Pay equity laws D. Anti-discrimination laws Answer: C. Pay equity laws are trending more and more in the United States. In this case, pay history bans are designed to reduce the systemic pay disparities between men and women—if women are paid unequally and employers pay based on salary history, it stands to reason then that asking about salary history will perpetuate the disparities. ================================================== Question: Employee behavior will be affected by wages based upon which of the following? A. If they can live comfortably on their base wages B. If they are making more in their current jobs than they could working for competitors C. The perception of what was earned versus what was discretionary D. The perception that they are paid what they are worth Answer: C. Organizational justice issues around compensation have an absolute impact on the nonmonetary value of total rewards. Justice issues include the manner in which rewards are allocated; employee behavior will be altered to the extent that rewards are earned and that rewards are discretionary. ================================================== Question: The HR manager for whom you are responsible got upset after a disgruntled employee yelled at her. By the end of the day, however, she understood that the employee's anger had nothing to do with her and that he was just reacting to the situation. The HR manager is demonstrating which of the following elements of emotional intelligence? A. Emotional regulation B. Emotional labor C. Self-awareness D. Emotional support Answer: A. Emotional intelligence is considered to have three aspects: self-awareness, other awareness, and emotional regulation. Emotional regulation is the ability of individuals to recover rapidly from an experienced emotion. ================================================== Question: Which of the following statements regarding emotional intelligence (EI) is false? A. EI is related to other types of intelligence, including IQ. B. Employees have different levels of EI. C. EI can be learned. D. EI is highly predictive of employee performance. Answer: D. Organizational science has spent a lot of time trying to understand the impact that emotional intelligence has on individual employee performance. A review of the studies found that there was only a modest correlation between EI levels and employee performance. Studies have found, however, that EI can be learned; it varies from individual to individual; and it is distinct from but positively related to other types of intelligence, such as IQ. ================================================== Question: Which generation is more likely to value money and flexibility as career goals? A. Generation X B. Boomers C. Millennials D. Traditionalists Answer: B. With multiple generations in the workplace, it can be difficult to balance the different priorities for career development. Boomers generally are seeking monetary gains and stability along with flexibility. Immediate rewards and career portability are valued by generation Xers, and millennials gravitate toward parallel careers and choice. ================================================== Question: The diversity manager at the Fortune 500 company for which you work has asked for the EEO 1 reports showing the demographics of the new hires over the last six months. The diversity manager is considering what type of diversity? A. Deep-level B. Surface-level C. Trait-based D. Biological Answer: B. Surface-level diversity is what many think of when they hear the term diversity, mainly because they are observable. Surface-level diversity includes traits such as sex, race, and age. ================================================== Question: The values and attitudes held by employees has been shown by research to be positively correlated with overall performance. This is an example of what type of diversity at work? A. Deep-level B. Surface-level C. Trait-based D. Biological Answer: A. Deep-level diversity includes the attitudes and beliefs of each individual. Studies have shown that when measured and understood, deep-level diversity factors may contribute more to individual and organizational performance than its counterpart, surface-level diversity. ================================================== Question: Under which condition may an employer adopt a fluctuating work week to calculate employee pay? A. For exempt employees to keep track of time B. If the employee schedules actually fluctuate C. For nonexempt workers who are paid a flat, biweekly sum D. Never, because fluctuating workweeks are prohibited under the Fair Labor Standards Act. Answer: B. One main consideration for an employer seeking to adopt an alternative overtime pay calculation of the fluctuating workweek is whether the employee's schedule actually fluctuates on a week-to-week basis. ================================================== Question: Of the following pairs of words, which are most likely to positively affect the collective attitude of a team? A. Job involvement and employee engagement B. Job enlargement and job enrichment C. Fair pay and feedback D. Social pressure and emotional contagion Answer: D. Teams often take on a single personality made up of the job attitudes of its members. Social pressure from teammates can strengthen either a positive or negative team attitude. Emotional contagion occurs when a negative (or positive) mood infects the attitudes of a team. ================================================== Question: You recently were informed that your company is being acquired by a major competitor. You have been authorized to put together an executive agreement that will pay the CEO to stay on board for a period of three years after the deal is finalized. This is an example of which executive compensation benefit? A. Golden handcuff B. Golden parachute C. Golden life jacket D. Golden handshake Answer: C. Of the "golden" category of executive benefits, a lifejacket is used to ensure an executive remains with a company after an event such as a merger or acquisition. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is the proper definition of phantom stock? A. Employees are offered stock options as incentives but are not allowed to exercise them until they are fully vested. B. Employees are incentivized based on the stock price but never actually earn shares. C. Employees are offered stock shares at the strike price. D. Employees are offered equity shares but must earn the ability to trade. Answer: B. Phantom stock is one way to pay employees for company performance without having to grant actual shares. ================================================== Question: The large construction company for which you work is struggling to find foremen in the ever-growing economy. They realize they are at risk to lose the ability to complete the several jobs they have on the books and so decide to increase field employee pay to the 90th percentile of the midrange market wage. This is an example of which of the following risk management strategies? A. Mitigation B. Avoidance C. Acceptance D. Transference Answer: A. Risk mitigation techniques are focused on minimizing the risk, which in this case is losing good employees to competitors and being unable to satisfy their book of business. ================================================== Question: Which of the following HR docs run the risk of creating an implied employment contract? A. Job offers B. Job descriptions C. Performance reviews D. All of the above Answer: D. Implied contracts can be established if HR does not take care to word information properly. A best practice is to use statements of at-will employment on documents such as job offers and job descriptions. It is also important that supervisors and other performance raters are trained to avoid making performance statements such as "you'll have a job here for life if you keep performing this way" to avoid claims of an implied contract. ================================================== Question: Predicting the consequences of an electricity outage at your place of work is the primary focus of which of the following business continuity planning tools? A. Hazard assessment B. Rapid response plan C. Business impact analysis D. Prevention plan Answer: C. Assessing the business impact of any type of operational disruption (natural or man-made) is the focus of a business impact analysis (BIA). HR should consider lost or delayed sales or income, increased expenses (overtime, outsourcing), potential regulatory fines, and other impacts that may be the result of a business disruption. ================================================== Question: The large manufacturer for which you work recently automated the high-hazard job that was the primary source of injury for employees. This is an example of what type of hazard control? A. Administrative B. Engineering C. Training D. PPE Answer: B. Controls that are introduced to reduce workplace hazards may be administrative, engineering, or the requirement of personal protective equipment. In this example, a process was changed to reduce hazard exposure, which is a type of engineering control as defined by OSHA. ================================================== Question: Glare and shadow controls are possible abatement strategies for which type of workplace hazard? A. Lighting B. Machinery C. Electricity D. Housekeeping Answer: A. OSHA recommends that employers both inspect and respond to employee safety hazards that may exist due to poor lighting at workstations. This includes assessing the type and intensity of station lighting along with the presence (or lack of) glare/shadow controls that can contribute to eye strain. ================================================== Question: The major hospital for which you work has asked you to create an educational resource for local employers to help prepare for an influenza pandemic. Which of the following would you recommend employers do to help prevent the spread of disease? A. Mandate flu vaccines for all employees. B. Encourage employees to stay home when sick. C. Provide hand sanitizer to kill the germs. D. All of the above Answer: B. A global pandemic of the flu (such as H1N1 in 2009) is a threat that occurs when a new strain of the virus emerges. New strain pandemics are resistant to seasonal vaccines and can spread quickly. For that reason, employers should have flexible attendance policies that encourage workers to stay home when sick to avoid the spread of the disease. ================================================== Question: The rise of sexual harassment claims in the news in 2018 is most likely going to lead to which of the following conditions? A. More enforcement of existing anti-harassment laws B. Increased training obligations of employers C. An increase in claims of workplace harassment D. Higher employee fines for wrongdoing Answer: C. The high-profile nature of the multitude of 2017 and 2018 sexual harassment claims in the workplace is bound to change the organizational climate in some way. Anti-harassment and training responsibilities have been around for a long time, but the employer culture of retaliation seemed to discourage reporting in many of the cases. While difficult to predict, it seems that the stigma of reporting and increased credibility of worker charges forecasts an increase in harassment claims that HR departments should be prepared to investigate. ================================================== Question: Tension headaches, absenteeism, and erratic behaviors are all signs of which of the following workplace safety hazards? A. Substance abuse B. Autoimmune disorders C. Soft tissue injury D. Stress Answer: D. Stress due to work or non-work-related circumstances is a real issue that employer safety programs may need to address. According to the CDC, symptoms may include tension headaches, excessive absenteeism, unusual or out-of-character behaviors, crying, and difficulty making decisions. ================================================== Question: Your American employer has asked you to identify the risk of global illness for expatriates working across the globe. Which HR tool should you use? A. An international broker B. Government resources C. A self-inspection D. A job hazard analysis Answer: B. There are many methods employers may choose to conduct an assessment of the specific types of risks associated with sending expatriates to various parts of the world. In this case, the assessment may be begin by accessing the United States' Centers for Disease Control's global health website, which includes up-to-date information on the global health risks in various countries. ================================================== Question: Which of the following groups contribute to the design and enforcement of workplace health and safety standards for multinational employers across Europe? A. OSHA B. Works councils C. Labor unions D. All of the above Answer: D. The European Agency for Safety and Health at Work (EU-OSHA), trade unions, and works councils all have taken some measure of responsibility for designing and enforcing safety standards that protect workers. ================================================== Question: Of the following HR tools, which is the first that you should use when trying to identify predictors of success in a job? A. Job analysis B. Job specifications C. Job descriptions D. Job evaluation Answer: A. Job analysis serves as the fundamental starting point for many HR processes, both operationally and strategically. When done properly, job analysis both defines the work but also identifies the relevant criteria that are important for success. From that criteria, employment tests designed to predict performance can be selected. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is quickly becoming the primary way employers vet job candidates in the 21st century? A. Online videos B. Apps C. Social media D. Job boards Answer: C. Cyber-vetting is the process of using the Internet to determine an applicant's qualifications for a job. Some studies estimate that more than 70 percent of employers use social media to screen candidates before hiring. ================================================== Question: What is a major advantage of having a return-to-work program for individuals with a non-work-related injury? A. Increased compliance with workers' compensation laws B. Preparing for stronger labor laws related to safety C. Better individual management of work responsibilities D. All of the above Answer: C. Studies have found that by allowing individuals with non-work-related injuries to participate in return to work programs, these individuals feel more in control of their responsibilities at work. Helping individuals struggling with disabilities through RTW programs changes their focus from what is a "problem" to the tools they may use for effective management related to their work, attendance, and other outcomes. ==================================================

Resize The Picture Of The Kitchen To 180 Percent

Question: create a blank document
Answer: file, new, blank document
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Question: Start word 2019
Answer: start button (4 square), word
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Question: uses the text insert chart in tell me box to get help on inserting chart
Answer: tell me box
write insert chart

click add a chart to you document
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Question: change the documents margins to Normal settings
Answer: layout, margins, normal
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Question: Show formatting marks
Answer: home, (its the comma looking thing)
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Question: Perform a grammar and spelling check. Accept suggested change for the first flagged word, and ignore all occurrences of the next word
Answer: review, spelling&grammar
-click the word under suggestions
-Then, click ignore all
==================================================
Question: Accept changes of the underlined word
Answer: right click the underline word
click the suggested word
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Question: Save the new blank document as a file named "Service Descriptions" in documents folder
Answer: Save
Type in the "Enter file name here" (under documents),
Click Save
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Question: Change document theme to berlin
Answer: Design, Theme, (Berlin or which ever they tell you)
==================================================

Answer: click the paragraph
click Align center (under mailing)
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Question: select the word information in the inside address
Answer: highlight it with mouse
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Question: Change the font of the heading
Answer: highlight it with mouse
select new font
==================================================
Question: highlight the word "Tech" in yellow
Answer: highlight text with mouse
click the yellow marker
==================================================
Question: without deleting the text, capitalize each word
Answer: highlight text

click Capitalize each word
==================================================
Question: Apply the fill: blue; shadow text effects
Answer: highlight the text

(to the left of the highlighter marker)
==================================================
Question: apply the small caps font effect to the text
Answer: highlight text
in the font group, click the dialogue box
(tab in the right corner)
click small caps
==================================================
Question: Apply the blue shading to the paragraphs
Answer: highlight text
paint bucket
==================================================
Question: select all text in the document
Answer: in the editing group, click the select button
click select all
==================================================
Question: Select the paragraph after "project Plan" heading
Answer: click in the left margin of the paragraph
double click
==================================================

Answer: highlight the text
in font group, click font color arrow
==================================================
Question: Zoom out to 100%
Answer: at the bottom on the document, click zoom out button
(status bar)
==================================================
Question: Apply the default numbering style to the paragraphs
Answer: highlight paragraphs
click the # bullet
(on home page)
==================================================
Question: undo the last action in the document, then redo it
Answer: on the quick access toolbar, click the undo
click the redo
==================================================
Question: Apply the default bullets to the 5 paragraphs
Answer: highlight paragraph
click the bullets
==================================================

Answer: highlight text
click bold
highlight new text
click repeat (in quick access tool bar)
==================================================

Answer: right click text
click remove hyperlink
==================================================
Question: Italicize the word
Answer: click the word
click italic
==================================================
Question: select nonadjacent heading paragraphs
Answer: 1. click in the left margin of paragraph when the pointer is an arrow
2. hold CONTROL, click in the left margin of paragraph,
3. hold CONTROL, click in the left margin of paragraph
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Answer: highlight
click bold
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Question: Save the open document as a file named "june newsletter" in documents folder
Answer: File
Save as
click documents

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Question: at the insertion point, insert the picture file name Cloud Computing
Answer: insert
picture
click on the picture
click insert
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Question: apply the picture styles Simple frame, black
Answer: click the picture
format
in the picture styles group, click arrow to see all options

THESE ARE THE FRAMES
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Question: Apply the picture effects Glow
Answer: click the picture,
format
picture effects
glow
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Question: Add a 1 1/2 pt box page border to all pages in the current document. Select the double line style and the color blue-grey
Answer: design
page border
style: lines
color: pick one
width: 1/2
==================================================
Question: Type carter in the tags document property, and exit backstage view
Answer: File

- Click TAB
press back
==================================================
Question: Close the current document, but leave word running
Answer: File
Close
==================================================
Question: Open a word document
Answer: File
Browse
Click the picture of the document
Click open
==================================================
Question: Cut and paste text
Answer: highlight the word (with the dot)
cut it
paste it

NOTE: the comma thing stands for a paragraph
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Question: Copy and paste text
Answer: highlight text
click to the left of the comma paragraph thing
click paste

(i brought the after dot, idk?)
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Question: copy "Danielle" and paste it in blank paragraph using a paste option that matches the formatting of the destination paragraph
Answer: highlight text
click copy
click paragraph space
click paste (BIG button)
click paste options button (that appears)
click the paste Merge formatting (one with arrow)
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Question: move "Chicago, IL" paragraph to the blank line after "121 Verde st" paragraph
Answer: click left margin (chicago, IL)
press control, and x
click the blank line after the street
press control, and v
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Question: switch the current document to read mode, and the advance to the next page
Answer: on status bar (at the botton on page), click Read mode
(LOOKS LIKE A BOOK)
then, press the right arrow
==================================================
Question: switch the view options to display multiple pages of the document in word window
Answer: view
in zoom group, click multiple pages
==================================================
Question: Print the document in default settings
Answer: file
print
click the printer
==================================================
Question: switch the current document to print layout
Answer: on the status bar, press the print layout button
RIGHT NEXT TO READ MODE
==================================================
Question: Save the document using the same file name and save location
Answer: On the quick access toolbar (at the top)
click save
==================================================
Question: change the paper size of the document to legal and scale the document to legal paper size
Answer: File
Print
under settings,
click letter button
---> select legal
click 1 page per sheet
click scale to paper size
--> select legal
==================================================
Question: Exit word, closing all open documents
Answer: on the WINDOWS tool bar,
RIGHT click the word button
click close all windows
==================================================

Answer: review
highlight the word
thesaurus
click the word
-- the down arrow, and insert
==================================================
Question: delete "Johnson E" source from the current document only
Answer: references
manage sources
click source
click delete
click close
==================================================
Question: in the blank paragraph at the end of the document, insert a Work Cited list using the Bibliography gallery
Answer: (there should be an empty page)

references
bibliography
click work cited
==================================================
Question: replace every instance of the word "remodel" with "renovation" in the document
Answer: in the home tab,
click replace
Find what: remodel
With what: renovation
click replace all
click ok
click the x
==================================================
Question: at the end of the sentence at the bottom of page 2, before the period, insert a citation to the Park, Don source
Answer: references
insert citation

==================================================
Question: create a 0.5" first line indent in the second body paragraph in the document
Answer: highlight paragraph
under paragraphs, click the tab in the corner

under special
click first line
under by,
type 0.5
click ok
==================================================
Question: insert a built-in bibliography without a pre formatted heading in the blank paragraph at the end of the document
Answer: references
bibliography
click insert bibliography
(at the bottom)
==================================================
Question: create a 1" hanging indent in the "planning" paragraph
Answer: highlight paragraph
under paragraphs, click the tab in the corner

under special
click hanging
under by,
type 1
click ok
==================================================
Question: Modify the footnote text style to use 12-pt text, double line spacing, and first line indent
Answer: Click the footnote Under Home,
under styles,
click the tab in the corner click options
click the footnote text

click format Special: first line indent
==================================================
Question: update the bibliography
Answer: click the bibliography
click the update bibliography that appears
==================================================
Question: inspect the document for issues and remove all of them
Answer: file
check for issues
inspect document
click inspect
click remove all
click close
==================================================
Question: change the footnote formatting to use the numbering i,ii,iii format
Answer: references
under footnotes, click the tab
click APPLY
==================================================
Question: Add a border to the picture using
Gold accent 2, darker 50% color
Answer: click picture
format
picture border
select color: Gold accent 2, darker 50% color
==================================================
Question: delete the table from the document
Answer: click the small box at the left top
press delete
==================================================
Question: add alt text to the picture by using "Remodeled Kitchen" as the description text
Answer: click picture
format
click: alt text
click: x
==================================================
Question: change the brightness and contrast of the picture
Brightness:0% (Normal)
Contrast: -40%
Answer: click picture
format
corrections
==================================================
Question: in the space below "precision builders is dedicated" paragraph, insert a table with 2 columns and 5 rows
Answer: click the space
insert
table
insert table
rows: 5
columns: 2
==================================================
Question: resize the picture to 180 percent of its current size
Answer: select picture
format
click SIZE
click the SIZE down arrow tab

height:180
width: 180
==================================================
Question: Enter "value" in the 4th smart shape
Answer: click the 4th shape

==================================================
Question: move the picture to the left of all line in the text in the document
Answer: select picture
format
click align
???
==================================================
Question: place the insertion point in the blank line at the end of the document and insert a vertical box list SmartArt graphic
Answer: insert
smart art
==================================================
Question: place insertion point in the blank paragraph above the address, and then insert the current date in the Month DD, YYYY format
Answer: insert
text
date and time

==================================================
Question: set a left tab stop at 4 inches, and then press TAB to align the date at the new tab stop
Answer: paragraph, press the tab arrow
click tabs


press TAB
==================================================
Question: change the smart art to use the step up Process layout
Answer: click the smart art
design
select LAYOUTS
---> pick one
==================================================
Question: Apply shadow shape effect "Offset center", to the star shape
Answer: click the shape
under shape styles, click shape effects
click shadow
click offset center
==================================================
Question: at the insertion point immediately after the space at the end of the second last line of the 4th body paragraph
press BACKSPACE
insert a non-breaking space
Answer: delete the non-breaking space
Press:control, shift, space
==================================================
Question: position the picture, using the position in middle left with square text wrapping
Answer: click picture
format
arrange
position
==================================================
Question: Flip picture horizontally
Answer: click picture
format
arrange
rotate
flip horizontally
==================================================
Question: select the second row of the table
Answer: click to the left of it
(where you have an arrow)
==================================================
Question: recolor the picture using the washout setting
Answer: click picture
format
color
recolor
==================================================
Question: move the tab stop for the date to the 4.5-inch marker
Answer: click the text
drag the ruler at the top
==================================================
Question: change the SmartArt color to Gradient Loop
Answer: click the Smart Art
design
click change color
select option
==================================================
Question: delete the text box with the heading "set the date" from document
Answer: click the box
press delete
==================================================
Question: create and print and envelope with the recipient address
Use the default delivery address and no return address
Answer: highlight recipients information
click mailing
click envelops
click print
==================================================
Question: add a 1/2 pt outline to the cube using Gold Accent 2 color
Answer: click cube
format
shape outline
--> color: gold, accent 2
---> border: 1/2
==================================================
Question: apply the grid table 5 dark- accent 6 style to the table
Answer: select the table
under table styles,
click: grid table 5 dark- accent 6
==================================================
Question: rotate the light green arrow by 157 degree
Answer: click the arrow
format
arrange
rotate
more rotation options

rotation: 157

==================================================
Question: insert a row above "return on investment" row
insert a column to the left of "cons" column

click insert
click insert above

click RIGHT the cons column
click insert
click left
==================================================
Question: place insertion point infant of 2019 in the table credit line, and then insert a copyright symbol from the Symbol gallery
Answer: insert
symbols
click symbol
--> copyright
==================================================
Question: Apply the shape type color fill
lime, accent 3
to the arrow
Answer: click arrow
format
under shape types,
click the color that matched
==================================================

Answer: Home
highlight paragraph
under paragraphs section,
click borders
click outside border
==================================================
Question: wrap text around the picture using through text wrapping
Answer: select picture
format
arrange
wrap text

==================================================
Question: clear the 4-inch tab stop in the date paragraph of the current document
Answer: under paragraphs, open the tab arrow
press tabs
click clear
==================================================

Answer: click inside the box
under paragraphs, click border
click border and shading
==================================================
Question: select the graphic and set the grey clip to a transparent color
Answer: select the picture
format
color
set transparent color
click: the area you want transparent
==================================================
Question: Add a shape to the SmartArt and type "goal 3" in new shape
Answer: right click
click add shape
click add shape after

==================================================
Question: clear formatting in the paragraph
Answer: highlight text
click the "A" with purple marker
==================================================
Question: use the format painter to copy formatting from text "precision builders" to apply it to the text "precision builders" in the second body
Answer: highlight text
press format copy
highlight new next
==================================================
Question: at the top of the document, centered above
Answer: select pictures (using control)
format
arrange
align
--> Align selected objects
--> align right
--> align vertically
==================================================
Question: select the 3 objects and align them using align right and then distribute vertically. Use the sling selected option s
Answer: insert
online picture

press enter
press insert
==================================================
Question: in the blank paragraph at the end of the document, insert an online picture by using "plan" to search
Answer: click the rectange
press copy
click the space
press paste
==================================================
Question:””Question:”Qu”Question:”Ques”Question:”Question:”Question:”Question: c””Question:”Ques”Question:”Question:”Question:”Question: c”Que””Question:”Question:”Question:”Question: c”Que”Question:”Questio”Question:”Question:”Question:”Question: c”Que””Question:”Question:”Question:”Question: c”Que”Question:”Question: c”Question: create a ”Qu”Q”Q”Question: create a ”Qu”Q”Question: create a ”Qu”Question: create a ”Quest”Qu”Question: create a ”Qu”Q”Question: create a ”Qu”Question: create a ”Quest”Question: crea”Question: create a ”Quest”Question: create a ”Questi”Question: create a ”Quest”Question: create a ”Questio”Question: create a ”Quest”Question: cre”Question: create a ”Quest”Question: create a ”Questio”Question: create a ”Quest”Question: create a ”Question: create a blank docume”Question: ”Question: create a blank docume”Question: create a blank document Answer: file, new, blank document ================================================== Question: Start word 2019 Answer: start button (4 square), word ================================================== Question: uses the text insert chart in tell me box to get help on inserting chart Answer: tell me box write insert chart click "Get help on insert chart" click add a chart to you document ================================================== Question: change the documents margins to Normal settings Answer: layout, margins, normal ================================================== Question: Show formatting marks Answer: home, (its the comma looking thing) ================================================== Question: Perform a grammar and spelling check. Accept suggested change for the first flagged word, and ignore all occurrences of the next word Answer: review, spelling&grammar -click the word under suggestions -Then, click ignore all ================================================== Question: Accept changes of the underlined word Answer: right click the underline word click the suggested word ================================================== Question: Save the new blank document as a file named "Service Descriptions" in documents folder Answer: Save Type in the "Enter file name here" (under documents), Click Save ================================================== Question: Change document theme to berlin Answer: Design, Theme, (Berlin or which ever they tell you) ================================================== Question: Center the heading "Project Plan" Answer: click the paragraph click Align center (under mailing) ================================================== Question: select the word information in the inside address Answer: highlight it with mouse ================================================== Question: Change the font of the heading Answer: highlight it with mouse select new font ================================================== Question: highlight the word "Tech" in yellow Answer: highlight text with mouse click the yellow marker ================================================== Question: without deleting the text, capitalize each word Answer: highlight text Home: click the "Aa" click Capitalize each word ================================================== Question: Apply the fill: blue; shadow text effects Answer: highlight the text click the blue capital "A" (to the left of the highlighter marker) ================================================== Question: apply the small caps font effect to the text Answer: highlight text in the font group, click the dialogue box (tab in the right corner) click small caps ================================================== Question: Apply the blue shading to the paragraphs Answer: highlight text paint bucket ================================================== Question: select all text in the document Answer: in the editing group, click the select button click select all ================================================== Question: Select the paragraph after "project Plan" heading Answer: click in the left margin of the paragraph double click ================================================== Question: Change the font color of the word "Rockland" Answer: highlight the text in font group, click font color arrow ================================================== Question: Zoom out to 100% Answer: at the bottom on the document, click zoom out button (status bar) ================================================== Question: Apply the default numbering style to the paragraphs Answer: highlight paragraphs click the # bullet (on home page) ================================================== Question: undo the last action in the document, then redo it Answer: on the quick access toolbar, click the undo click the redo ================================================== Question: Apply the default bullets to the 5 paragraphs Answer: highlight paragraph click the bullets ================================================== Question: Apply bold to the word "tech" and then repeat the bold action to the word "dockland" Answer: highlight text click bold highlight new text click repeat (in quick access tool bar) ================================================== Question: remove hyperlink from the word "blockchain" Answer: right click text click remove hyperlink ================================================== Question: Italicize the word Answer: click the word click italic ================================================== Question: select nonadjacent heading paragraphs Answer: 1. click in the left margin of paragraph when the pointer is an arrow 2. hold CONTROL, click in the left margin of paragraph, 3. hold CONTROL, click in the left margin of paragraph ================================================== Question: bold the heading "Plan Success" Answer: highlight click bold ================================================== Question: Save the open document as a file named "june newsletter" in documents folder Answer: File Save as click documents type "june newsletters" ================================================== Question: at the insertion point, insert the picture file name Cloud Computing Answer: insert picture click on the picture click insert ================================================== Question: apply the picture styles Simple frame, black Answer: click the picture format in the picture styles group, click arrow to see all options THESE ARE THE FRAMES ================================================== Question: Apply the picture effects Glow Answer: click the picture, format picture effects glow ================================================== Question: Add a 1 1/2 pt box page border to all pages in the current document. Select the double line style and the color blue-grey Answer: design page border style: lines color: pick one width: 1/2 ================================================== Question: Type carter in the tags document property, and exit backstage view Answer: File under tags, type "carter" - Click TAB press back ================================================== Question: Close the current document, but leave word running Answer: File Close ================================================== Question: Open a word document Answer: File Browse Click the picture of the document Click open ================================================== Question: Cut and paste text Answer: highlight the word (with the dot) cut it paste it NOTE: the comma thing stands for a paragraph ================================================== Question: Copy and paste text Answer: highlight text click to the left of the comma paragraph thing click paste (i brought the after dot, idk?) ================================================== Question: copy "Danielle" and paste it in blank paragraph using a paste option that matches the formatting of the destination paragraph Answer: highlight text click copy click paragraph space click paste (BIG button) click paste options button (that appears) click the paste Merge formatting (one with arrow) ================================================== Question: move "Chicago, IL" paragraph to the blank line after "121 Verde st" paragraph Answer: click left margin (chicago, IL) press control, and x click the blank line after the street press control, and v ================================================== Question: switch the current document to read mode, and the advance to the next page Answer: on status bar (at the botton on page), click Read mode (LOOKS LIKE A BOOK) then, press the right arrow ================================================== Question: switch the view options to display multiple pages of the document in word window Answer: view in zoom group, click multiple pages ================================================== Question: Print the document in default settings Answer: file print click the printer ================================================== Question: switch the current document to print layout Answer: on the status bar, press the print layout button RIGHT NEXT TO READ MODE ================================================== Question: Save the document using the same file name and save location Answer: On the quick access toolbar (at the top) click save ================================================== Question: change the paper size of the document to legal and scale the document to legal paper size Answer: File Print under settings, click letter button ---> select legal click 1 page per sheet click scale to paper size --> select legal ================================================== Question: Exit word, closing all open documents Answer: on the WINDOWS tool bar, RIGHT click the word button click close all windows ================================================== Question: use thesaurus to replace the word "prize" with its synonym "reward" Answer: review highlight the word thesaurus click the word -- the down arrow, and insert ================================================== Question: delete "Johnson E" source from the current document only Answer: references manage sources click source click delete click close ================================================== Question: in the blank paragraph at the end of the document, insert a Work Cited list using the Bibliography gallery Answer: (there should be an empty page) references bibliography click work cited ================================================== Question: replace every instance of the word "remodel" with "renovation" in the document Answer: in the home tab, click replace Find what: remodel With what: renovation click replace all click ok click the x ================================================== Question: at the end of the sentence at the bottom of page 2, before the period, insert a citation to the Park, Don source Answer: references insert citation click the source "Park Don" ================================================== Question: create a 0.5" first line indent in the second body paragraph in the document Answer: highlight paragraph under paragraphs, click the tab in the corner under special click first line under by, type 0.5 click ok ================================================== Question: insert a built-in bibliography without a pre formatted heading in the blank paragraph at the end of the document Answer: references bibliography click insert bibliography (at the bottom) ================================================== Question: create a 1" hanging indent in the "planning" paragraph Answer: highlight paragraph under paragraphs, click the tab in the corner under special click hanging under by, type 1 click ok ================================================== Question: Modify the footnote text style to use 12-pt text, double line spacing, and first line indent Answer: Click the footnote Under Home, under styles, click the tab in the corner click options click the footnote text click format Special: first line indent ================================================== Question: update the bibliography Answer: click the bibliography click the update bibliography that appears ================================================== Question: inspect the document for issues and remove all of them Answer: file check for issues inspect document click inspect click remove all click close ================================================== Question: change the footnote formatting to use the numbering i,ii,iii format Answer: references under footnotes, click the tab click APPLY ================================================== Question: Add a border to the picture using Gold accent 2, darker 50% color Answer: click picture format picture border select color: Gold accent 2, darker 50% color ================================================== Question: delete the table from the document Answer: click the small box at the left top press delete ================================================== Question: add alt text to the picture by using "Remodeled Kitchen" as the description text Answer: click picture format click: alt text click: x ================================================== Question: change the brightness and contrast of the picture Brightness:0% (Normal) Contrast: -40% Answer: click picture format corrections ================================================== Question: in the space below "precision builders is dedicated" paragraph, insert a table with 2 columns and 5 rows Answer: click the space insert table insert table rows: 5 columns: 2 ================================================== Question: resize the picture to 180 percent of its current size Answer: select picture format click SIZE click the SIZE down arrow tab height:180 width: 180 ================================================== Question: Enter "value" in the 4th smart shape Answer: click the 4th shape type "value" ================================================== Question: move the picture to the left of all line in the text in the document Answer: select picture format click align ??? ================================================== Question: place the insertion point in the blank line at the end of the document and insert a vertical box list SmartArt graphic Answer: insert smart art ================================================== Question: place insertion point in the blank paragraph above the address, and then insert the current date in the Month DD, YYYY format Answer: insert text date and time click "ok" ================================================== Question: set a left tab stop at 4 inches, and then press TAB to align the date at the new tab stop Answer: paragraph, press the tab arrow click tabs under default tab stop: 4" click "ok" press TAB ================================================== Question: change the smart art to use the step up Process layout Answer: click the smart art design select LAYOUTS ---> pick one ================================================== Question: Apply shadow shape effect "Offset center", to the star shape Answer: click the shape under shape styles, click shape effects click shadow click offset center ================================================== Question: at the insertion point immediately after the space at the end of the second last line of the 4th body paragraph press BACKSPACE insert a non-breaking space Answer: delete the non-breaking space Press:control, shift, space ================================================== Question: position the picture, using the position in middle left with square text wrapping Answer: click picture format arrange position ================================================== Question: Flip picture horizontally Answer: click picture format arrange rotate flip horizontally ================================================== Question: select the second row of the table Answer: click to the left of it (where you have an arrow) ================================================== Question: recolor the picture using the washout setting Answer: click picture format color recolor ================================================== Question: move the tab stop for the date to the 4.5-inch marker Answer: click the text drag the ruler at the top ================================================== Question: change the SmartArt color to Gradient Loop Answer: click the Smart Art design click change color select option ================================================== Question: delete the text box with the heading "set the date" from document Answer: click the box press delete ================================================== Question: create and print and envelope with the recipient address Use the default delivery address and no return address Answer: highlight recipients information click mailing click envelops click print ================================================== Question: add a 1/2 pt outline to the cube using Gold Accent 2 color Answer: click cube format shape outline --> color: gold, accent 2 ---> border: 1/2 ================================================== Question: apply the grid table 5 dark- accent 6 style to the table Answer: select the table under table styles, click: grid table 5 dark- accent 6 ================================================== Question: rotate the light green arrow by 157 degree Answer: click the arrow format arrange rotate more rotation options rotation: 157 click "ok" ================================================== Question: insert a row above "return on investment" row insert a column to the left of "cons" column Answer: click the "return on investment column" click insert click insert above click RIGHT the cons column click insert click left ================================================== Question: place insertion point infant of 2019 in the table credit line, and then insert a copyright symbol from the Symbol gallery Answer: insert symbols click symbol --> copyright ================================================== Question: Apply the shape type color fill lime, accent 3 to the arrow Answer: click arrow format under shape types, click the color that matched ================================================== Question: apply an outside border to the letterhead paragraphs starting with "precision" and ending with "3680" Answer: Home highlight paragraph under paragraphs section, click borders click outside border ================================================== Question: wrap text around the picture using through text wrapping Answer: select picture format arrange wrap text click "Through" ================================================== Question: clear the 4-inch tab stop in the date paragraph of the current document Answer: under paragraphs, open the tab arrow press tabs click clear ================================================== Question: Format the box border around the paragraph "One" Answer: click inside the box under paragraphs, click border click border and shading ================================================== Question: select the graphic and set the grey clip to a transparent color Answer: select the picture format color set transparent color click: the area you want transparent ================================================== Question: Add a shape to the SmartArt and type "goal 3" in new shape Answer: right click click add shape click add shape after type "goal 3" ================================================== Question: clear formatting in the paragraph Answer: highlight text click the "A" with purple marker ================================================== Question: use the format painter to copy formatting from text "precision builders" to apply it to the text "precision builders" in the second body Answer: highlight text press format copy highlight new next ================================================== Question: at the top of the document, centered above Answer: select pictures (using control) format arrange align --> Align selected objects --> align right --> align vertically ================================================== Question: select the 3 objects and align them using align right and then distribute vertically. Use the sling selected option s Answer: insert online picture type "plan" press enter press insert ================================================== Question: in the blank paragraph at the end of the document, insert an online picture by using "plan" to search Answer: click the rectange press copy click the space press paste ==================================================

Characteristics Of Normal Urine

Question: normal characteristics of urine: color & transparency
Answer: -clear, pale to deep yellow (due to urochrome)
-concentrated urine has a deeper yellow/amber color

-red or red-brown (abnormal) color could be from food dye, eating fresh beets, a drug, or presence of either hemoglobin or myoglobin

-if sample contained many RBCS, it would be cloudy as well as red
==================================================
Question: normal characteristics of urine: odor
Answer: -fresh urine: slightly aromatic
-standing urine: ammonia odor
-some drugs & vegetables (asparagus) alter the usual odor)
-elevated ketones smells fruity or acetone-like
==================================================
Question: normal characteristics of urine: specific gravity
Answer: specific gravity: measures density of urine compared to
water
-ranges from 1.001-1.035
-1.001= diluted
- 1.035= concentrated
-is dependent on solute concentration
* > 1.035 is either contaminated or contains very
high levels of glucose
* patients who have recived radiopaque dyes or
dextrans can also have high specific gravity
==================================================
Question: chemical composition of urine
Answer: -95% water
-various ions (sodium, potassium, sulfate, calcium,
magnesium, bicarbonate)
-amino acids, lipids, & carbohydrate
-urea, uric acid, & creatinine

-abnormally high concetrations of any urinary constituents may indicate pathology
==================================================
Question: normal characteristics of urine: color & transparency Answer: -clear, pale to deep yellow (due to urochrome) -concentrated urine has a deeper yellow/amber color -red or red-brown (abnormal) color could be from food dye, eating fresh beets, a drug, or presence of either hemoglobin or myoglobin -if sample contained many RBCS, it would be cloudy as well as red ================================================== Question: normal characteristics of urine: odor Answer: -fresh urine: slightly aromatic -standing urine: ammonia odor -some drugs & vegetables (asparagus) alter the usual odor) -elevated ketones smells fruity or acetone-like ================================================== Question: normal characteristics of urine: specific gravity Answer: specific gravity: measures density of urine compared to water -ranges from 1.001-1.035 -1.001= diluted - 1.035= concentrated -is dependent on solute concentration * > 1.035 is either contaminated or contains very high levels of glucose * patients who have recived radiopaque dyes or dextrans can also have high specific gravity ================================================== Question: chemical composition of urine Answer: -95% water -various ions (sodium, potassium, sulfate, calcium, magnesium, bicarbonate) -amino acids, lipids, & carbohydrate -urea, uric acid, & creatinine -abnormally high concetrations of any urinary constituents may indicate pathology ==================================================

Characteristics Of Myths

Question: What is a Myth?
Answer: A myth is considered a true explanation of the natural world and how it came to be.
==================================================
Question: Characters
Answer: Often non-human and are typically gods, goddesses, supernatural beings or mystical.
==================================================
Question: Setting
Answer: Typically ancient or prior to a time when records were kept and set in a world very similar to our own, but with supernatural monsters or areas.
==================================================
Question: Plot
Answer: May take place between a supernatural world and our present day world. (Highlights basic human behaviors are essential in any setting.)
==================================================
Question: Natural Laws
Answer: Myths possess events that bend or break natural laws. (Often done to magnify the "supernaturalness" of the mythical world.)
==================================================
Question: Social Action
Answer: Myths try to tell people how to act and live. Core values such as individualism, family, & community are often instilled in mythical heroes.
==================================================
Question: Mystery
Answer: Myths have a sense of mystery, or the unknown.
==================================================
Question: Dualities
Answer: Complete opposites such as night/day and good/evil often play important roles in the plot of a myth.
==================================================
Question: Language
Answer: There is an emphasis on language. Mythical heroes are often sophisticated storytellers.
==================================================
Question: Metaphoric
Answer: Myths are created to comment or analyze a real world event. They attempt to answer real world questions such as: Why are we here? Who are we? Why are we living? What is our purpose?
==================================================
Question: What is a Myth? Answer: A myth is considered a true explanation of the natural world and how it came to be. ================================================== Question: Characters Answer: Often non-human and are typically gods, goddesses, supernatural beings or mystical. ================================================== Question: Setting Answer: Typically ancient or prior to a time when records were kept and set in a world very similar to our own, but with supernatural monsters or areas. ================================================== Question: Plot Answer: May take place between a supernatural world and our present day world. (Highlights basic human behaviors are essential in any setting.) ================================================== Question: Natural Laws Answer: Myths possess events that bend or break natural laws. (Often done to magnify the "supernaturalness" of the mythical world.) ================================================== Question: Social Action Answer: Myths try to tell people how to act and live. Core values such as individualism, family, & community are often instilled in mythical heroes. ================================================== Question: Mystery Answer: Myths have a sense of mystery, or the unknown. ================================================== Question: Dualities Answer: Complete opposites such as night/day and good/evil often play important roles in the plot of a myth. ================================================== Question: Language Answer: There is an emphasis on language. Mythical heroes are often sophisticated storytellers. ================================================== Question: Metaphoric Answer: Myths are created to comment or analyze a real world event. They attempt to answer real world questions such as: Why are we here? Who are we? Why are we living? What is our purpose? ==================================================

Characteristics Of Minerals

Question: 5 characteristics of a mineral
Answer: solid, naturally occurring, inorganic, fixed composition, crystal form
==================================================
Question: Solid
Answer: can't be a liquid or a gas
==================================================
Question: naturrally occurring
Answer: found in nature, not manmade
==================================================
Question: inorganic
Answer: is not alive and never was, nonliving
==================================================
Question: Fixed composition
Answer: has a chemical formula, most are formed from compounds of two or more elements, some minerals consist of one element
==================================================
Question: Crystal Form
Answer: a definite structure in which atoms are arranged
==================================================
Question: 5 characteristics of a mineral Answer: solid, naturally occurring, inorganic, fixed composition, crystal form ================================================== Question: Solid Answer: can't be a liquid or a gas ================================================== Question: naturrally occurring Answer: found in nature, not manmade ================================================== Question: inorganic Answer: is not alive and never was, nonliving ================================================== Question: Fixed composition Answer: has a chemical formula, most are formed from compounds of two or more elements, some minerals consist of one element ================================================== Question: Crystal Form Answer: a definite structure in which atoms are arranged ==================================================

Characteristics Of Lipids

Question: Lipids
Answer: Contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
==================================================
Question: Lipids functional groups
Answer: Methyl and hydroxyl.
==================================================
Question: Lipids monomers
Answer: Glycerol plus fatty acids.
==================================================
Question: Lipids are
Answer: Hydrophobic which means water fearing
==================================================
Question: Examples of lipids
Answer: Fats and oils, phospholipids, waxes, and sterols.
==================================================
Question: Fats and oils
Answer: Have similar structures.
==================================================
Question: Fats
Answer: Are solids at room temperature.
-produced by animals
-for energy storage and insulation
==================================================
Question: Oils
Answer: Are liquids at room temperature and produced by plants.
==================================================
Question: Structure of fats and oils
Answer: Composed of glycerides. One glycerol and three fatty acids.
==================================================
Question: Two types of fats and oils
Answer: Saturated and unsaturated.
==================================================
Question: Lipids Answer: Contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. ================================================== Question: Lipids functional groups Answer: Methyl and hydroxyl. ================================================== Question: Lipids monomers Answer: Glycerol plus fatty acids. ================================================== Question: Lipids are Answer: Hydrophobic which means water fearing ================================================== Question: Examples of lipids Answer: Fats and oils, phospholipids, waxes, and sterols. ================================================== Question: Fats and oils Answer: Have similar structures. ================================================== Question: Fats Answer: Are solids at room temperature. -produced by animals -for energy storage and insulation ================================================== Question: Oils Answer: Are liquids at room temperature and produced by plants. ================================================== Question: Structure of fats and oils Answer: Composed of glycerides. One glycerol and three fatty acids. ================================================== Question: Two types of fats and oils Answer: Saturated and unsaturated. ==================================================

Characteristics Of Life Lab Answer Key

Question: What are some DEFINING characteristics of life?
Answer: made of cells, metabolism, reproduction, response to environmental, communication, maintaining homeostasis
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Question: Name a characteristic of life that CANNOT be used as defining characteristic
Answer: movement
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Question: Why is it sometimes difficult to tell if something is alive or not?
Answer: non-living things may have characteristics of life (like fire) and living things may now show some characteristics in a way we can perceive (plants communicating)
==================================================
Question: Background information goes in the
Answer: introduction
==================================================
Question: Your prediction of what will happen is called the
Answer: hypothesis
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Question: It should be stated in the ____ format and must tell exactly what you are going to measure.
Answer: if-then
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Question: Details of how you did the experiment go in the ---- section
Answer: procedure
==================================================
Question: To be considered valid, a scientific experiment has to be ----- many times
Answer: repeated
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Question: Actual results of the experiment go in the -- section
Answer: results
==================================================
Question: Line graphs are used for ----- data
Answer: continuous
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Answer: discontinuous, comparing groups
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Question: In the ---- section, you explain your results, interpret your data, and give ideas for further study.
Answer: analysis
==================================================
Question: In a well-designed experiment, your results are due to just one factor, which is called the ---variable.
Answer: independent
==================================================
Question: The --- variable is the one you measure to get your data.
Answer: dependent
==================================================
Question: The plants, animals, people or whatever that actually get tested are called the
Answer: subjects
==================================================
Question: The group that is exposed to the independent variable is the ---- group.
Answer: experimental
==================================================
Question: The group that is exposed to all your factors EXCEPT the independent variable is the -- group.
Answer: control
==================================================
Question: What is the advantage of having a large sample size ?
Answer: It compensates for individual differences between subjects. In a very small sample, results may be due to individual differences and not the independant variable.
==================================================
Question: Data composed of numbers is --- data.
Answer: quantitative
==================================================
Question: Data composed of verbal descriptions and observations is ---- data.
Answer: qualitative
==================================================
Question: What are some DEFINING characteristic—Question: What are some DEFINING characteristics of life? Answer: made of cells, metabolism, reproduction, response to environmental, communication, maintaining homeostasis ================================================== Question: Name a characteristic of life that CANNOT be used as defining characteristic Answer: movement ================================================== Question: Why is it sometimes difficult to tell if something is alive or not? Answer: non-living things may have characteristics of life (like fire) and living things may now show some characteristics in a way we can perceive (plants communicating) ================================================== Question: Background information goes in the Answer: introduction ================================================== Question: Your prediction of what will happen is called the Answer: hypothesis ================================================== Question: It should be stated in the ____ format and must tell exactly what you are going to measure. Answer: if-then ================================================== Question: Details of how you did the experiment go in the ---- section Answer: procedure ================================================== Question: To be considered valid, a scientific experiment has to be ----- many times Answer: repeated ================================================== Question: Actual results of the experiment go in the -- section Answer: results ================================================== Question: Line graphs are used for ----- data Answer: continuous ================================================== Question: Bar graphs are used for -- data or ---- Answer: discontinuous, comparing groups ================================================== Question: In the ---- section, you explain your results, interpret your data, and give ideas for further study. Answer: analysis ================================================== Question: In a well-designed experiment, your results are due to just one factor, which is called the ---variable. Answer: independent ================================================== Question: The --- variable is the one you measure to get your data. Answer: dependent ================================================== Question: The plants, animals, people or whatever that actually get tested are called the Answer: subjects ================================================== Question: The group that is exposed to the independent variable is the ---- group. Answer: experimental ================================================== Question: The group that is exposed to all your factors EXCEPT the independent variable is the -- group. Answer: control ================================================== Question: What is the advantage of having a large sample size ? Answer: It compensates for individual differences between subjects. In a very small sample, results may be due to individual differences and not the independant variable. ================================================== Question: Data composed of numbers is --- data. Answer: quantitative ================================================== Question: Data composed of verbal descriptions and observations is ---- data. Answer: qualitative ==================================================

Characteristics Of Industrial Society

Question: What is an industrial society?
Answer: An industrial society is a society driven by the use of technology to enable mass production, supporting a large population with a high capacity for division of labour
==================================================
Question: What are some characteristics of an industrial society?
Answer: In this system, industrialization begins with the use of external energy sources, such as steam or fuel, to increase production and minimize a reliance on human labor. This streamlining of the manufacturing process then pushes workers into new or existing sectors, such as manufacturing of textiles or other goods.
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Question: Where might you find an industrial society today or in history?
Answer: You may find an industrial society in China. They are the world's largest leading manufacturer country in the world. Most countries get their products from China.
==================================================
Question: How is it similar to our society?
Answer: The united states is an industrial society because a considerable portion of its economy is tied to jobs that involve mechanized labor like factory farming or auto assembly plants
==================================================
Question: What are examples of an industrial society?
Answer: Cars, cameras, vaccums, light bulbs, etc.
==================================================
Question: Difference between industrial and post industrial?
Answer: In industrial world labor was more physical in nature whereas in post industrial world it is more mental in nature.
==================================================
Question: Why is an industrial society important?
Answer: Used in the abstract to denote the thesis that a definite type of society exists whose culture, institutions, and development are determined by its industrial production process.
==================================================
Question: What changes come in an inustrial society?
Answer: The change in economy
==================================================
Question: Is this an example of an industrial society?
Answer: Our machines are more powered by technology rather than by energy
==================================================
Question: What is an industrial society? Answer: An industrial society is a society driven by the use of technology to enable mass production, supporting a large population with a high capacity for division of labour ================================================== Question: What are some characteristics of an industrial society? Answer: In this system, industrialization begins with the use of external energy sources, such as steam or fuel, to increase production and minimize a reliance on human labor. This streamlining of the manufacturing process then pushes workers into new or existing sectors, such as manufacturing of textiles or other goods. ================================================== Question: Where might you find an industrial society today or in history? Answer: You may find an industrial society in China. They are the world's largest leading manufacturer country in the world. Most countries get their products from China. ================================================== Question: How is it similar to our society? Answer: The united states is an industrial society because a considerable portion of its economy is tied to jobs that involve mechanized labor like factory farming or auto assembly plants ================================================== Question: What are examples of an industrial society? Answer: Cars, cameras, vaccums, light bulbs, etc. ================================================== Question: Difference between industrial and post industrial? Answer: In industrial world labor was more physical in nature whereas in post industrial world it is more mental in nature. ================================================== Question: Why is an industrial society important? Answer: Used in the abstract to denote the thesis that a definite type of society exists whose culture, institutions, and development are determined by its industrial production process. ================================================== Question: What changes come in an inustrial society? Answer: The change in economy ================================================== Question: Is this an example of an industrial society? Answer: Our machines are more powered by technology rather than by energy ==================================================

Characteristics Of Grit

Question: What are the 4 characteristics of Grit?
Answer: Interest, Perseverance, Purpose, Hope
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Question: Interest
Answer: -GRIT begins with an authentic INTEREST of yours, a PASSION.
-GRITTY people may enjoy some aspects of their work more than others (obviously!), but overall they are captivated by the endeavor as a whole.

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Question: Perseverance
Answer: -This involves the capacity to PRACTICE. Perseverance is the daily discipline of trying to do things better today than you did yesterday.
-You must be willing to zero in on your WEAKNESSES, over and over, for hours a day, week after month after year.
-To be GRITTY is to say, "Whatever it takes, I want to improve!" This is true for all paragons of GRIT, no matter their particular interest!
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Question: Purpose
Answer: -You identify your work as personally interesting and, at the same time, integrally connected to the well-being of others
-For most people, the motivation to serve others heightens after the development of an interest and years of disciplined practice

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Question: Hope
Answer: -Hope does not define the last stage of GRIT; it defines EVERY stage
-It is inestimably important to keep going when things are difficult and to believe in our own capacity for improvement even when we have doubts about ourselves and our abilities.
-At various points, we WILL get knocked down. Hope lets us get back up each and every time.
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Question: What are the 4 characteristics of Grit? Answer: Interest, Perseverance, Purpose, Hope =”Question: What are the 4 characteristics of Grit? Answer: Interest, Perseverance, Purpose, Hope =============”Question: What are the 4 characteristics of Grit? Answer: Interest, Perseverance, Purpose, Hope ================================================== Question: Interest Answer: -GRIT begins with an authentic INTEREST of yours, a PASSION. -GRITTY people may enjoy some aspects of their work more than others (obviously!), but overall they are captivated by the endeavor as a whole. -With enduring curiosity and fascination for their INTEREST, these people can honestly say "I love what I do!" ================================================== Question: Perseverance Answer: -This involves the capacity to PRACTICE. Perseverance is the daily discipline of trying to do things better today than you did yesterday. -You must be willing to zero in on your WEAKNESSES, over and over, for hours a day, week after month after year. -To be GRITTY is to say, "Whatever it takes, I want to improve!" This is true for all paragons of GRIT, no matter their particular interest! ================================================== Question: Purpose Answer: -You identify your work as personally interesting and, at the same time, integrally connected to the well-being of others -For most people, the motivation to serve others heightens after the development of an interest and years of disciplined practice -Fully mature exemplars of GRIT invariably say "My work is important -- both to me and to others." ================================================== Question: Hope Answer: -Hope does not define the last stage of GRIT; it defines EVERY stage -It is inestimably important to keep going when things are difficult and to believe in our own capacity for improvement even when we have doubts about ourselves and our abilities. -At various points, we WILL get knocked down. Hope lets us get back up each and every time. ==================================================

Characteristics Of Forgiveness

Question: 1. FORGIVENESS MUST NOT ONLY BE RECEIVED, IT MUST BE GIVEN.
Answer: We believe that God forgives us for our sins, but also that He will not do so unless we forgive other people their sins against us.
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Question: 2. SOMETIMES WE ARE CONFUSED BY WHAT WE WANT WHEN ASKING TO BE FORGIVEN
Answer: I am asking him not to forgive me but to excuse me
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Question: 3. BEING EXCUSED IS NOT THE SAME AS BEING FORGIVEN
Answer: Forgiveness and excusing are almost opposites.
- Asking God for forgiveness means that you are truly sorry for something.
-. If you are constantly doing something repeatedly and then asking God for forgiveness, all you are really doing is trying to excuse yourself to make yourself better.
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Question: 4. TO BELIEVE IN THE FORIGVENESS OF SINS MEANS THAT YOU HAVE NO NEED TO HIDE FROM GOD.
Answer: Real forgiveness means looking steadily at the sin, the sins that is left over without any excuse, after all allowances have been made, and seeing it all its horror you are being wholly reconciled to the person who was done it.
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Question: 5. FORGIVING OTHERS MEANS TO APPLY THE SAME STANDARD TO OTHERS THAT GOD HAS PROMISED HE APPLIES TO YOU
Answer: To be a christian means to forgive the inexcusable, because God has forgiven the inexcusable in us.
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Question: 6. FORGIVENESS IS HARD WORK
Answer: By remembering where we stand, by meaning our words when we say in our prayers each night, we are offered forgiveness on no other terms. To refuse it, means we are refusing God's mercy for ourselves.
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Question: 1. FORGIVENESS MUST NOT ONLY BE RECEIVED, IT MUST BE GIVEN. Answer: We believe that God forgives us for our sins, but also that He will not do so unless we forgive other people their sins against us. ================================================== Question: 2. SOMETIMES WE ARE CONFUSED BY WHAT WE WANT WHEN ASKING TO BE FORGIVEN Answer: I am asking him not to forgive me but to excuse me ================================================== Question: 3. BEING EXCUSED IS NOT THE SAME AS BEING FORGIVEN Answer: Forgiveness and excusing are almost opposites. - Asking God for forgiveness means that you are truly sorry for something. -. If you are constantly doing something repeatedly and then asking God for forgiveness, all you are really doing is trying to excuse yourself to make yourself better. ================================================== Question: 4. TO BELIEVE IN THE FORIGVENESS OF SINS MEANS THAT YOU HAVE NO NEED TO HIDE FROM GOD. Answer: Real forgiveness means looking steadily at the sin, the sins that is left over without any excuse, after all allowances have been made, and seeing it all its horror you are being wholly reconciled to the person who was done it. ================================================== Question: 5. FORGIVING OTHERS MEANS TO APPLY THE SAME STANDARD TO OTHERS THAT GOD HAS PROMISED HE APPLIES TO YOU Answer: To be a christian means to forgive the inexcusable, because God has forgiven the inexcusable in us. ================================================== Question: 6. FORGIVENESS IS HARD WORK Answer: By remembering where we stand, by meaning our words when we say in our prayers each night, we are offered forgiveness on no other terms. To refuse it, means we are refusing God's mercy for ourselves. ==================================================

Characteristics Of Eukaryotes

Question: What are the main characteristics of eukaryotic cells?
Answer: (5)
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Question: #1
Answer: Has a nucleus -the nucleus contains DNA/chromosomes (genetic material)
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Question: #2
Answer: Has membrane bound organelles.
-Organelles which are completely surrounded by a plasma membrane, or even a double membrane.
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Question: #3
Answer: More complex than prokaryotic cells.
-Eukaryotic cells need lots of internal compartments (organelles) to do specific tasks.
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Question: #4
Answer: Larger than prokaryotic cells.
-10µm to 100µm in diametre.
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Question: #5
Answer: Prokaryotic cells reproduce via meiosis.
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Question: What does the nucleus contain?
Answer: The nucleus contains most of the cell's genetic material (chromatin).
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Question: What is a membrane-bound organelle?
Answer: A membrane bound organelle is an organelle which is completely surrounded by a plasma membrane or a double membrane.
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Question: How big are eukaryotic cells?
Answer: Eukaryotic cells are 10µm to 100µm in diametre.
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Question: How do eukaryotic cells reproduce?
Answer: Eukaryotic cells reproduce via meiosis.
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Question: Which kindgoms are eukaryotic?
Answer: The kingdoms of Animalia (animals), Plantae (plants), Fungi & Protista are eukaryotic.
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Question: What are the main characteristics of eukaryotic cells? Answer: (5) ================================================== Question: #1 Answer: Has a nucleus -the nucleus contains DNA/chromosomes (genetic material) ================================================== Question: #2 Answer: Has membrane bound organelles. -Organelles which are completely surrounded by a plasma membrane, or even a double membrane. ================================================== Question: #3 Answer: More complex than prokaryotic cells. -Eukaryotic cells need lots of internal compartments (organelles) to do specific tasks. ================================================== Question: #4 Answer: Larger than prokaryotic cells. -10µm to 100µm in diametre. ================================================== Question: #5 Answer: Prokaryotic cells reproduce via meiosis. ================================================== Question: What does the nucleus contain? Answer: The nucleus contains most of the cell's genetic material (chromatin). ================================================== Question: What is a membrane-bound organelle? Answer: A membrane bound organelle is an organelle which is completely surrounded by a plasma membrane or a double membrane. ================================================== Question: How big are eukaryotic cells? Answer: Eukaryotic cells are 10µm to 100µm in diametre. ================================================== Question: How do eukaryotic cells reproduce? Answer: Eukaryotic cells reproduce via meiosis. ================================================== Question: Which kindgoms are eukaryotic? Answer: The kingdoms of Animalia (animals), Plantae (plants), Fungi & Protista are eukaryotic. ==================================================

Characteristics Of Domain Bacteria

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Characteristics Of Democratic Government

Question: Democracy
Answer: a system of government that gives power to the people
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Question: Citizen Rule
Answer: citizens have the power to decide who will be the decision makers that run the government
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Question: Majority Rule and Minority Rights
Answer: majority decides on elections and issues, but the rights of the minority have to be protected in the process
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Question: Individual Rights
Answer: democracies protect the rights and freedom of individual people
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Question: Free and Fair Elections
Answer: adult citizens are granted the right to participate in regular elections
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Question: Citizen Participation
Answer: citizens have the right to vote also a responsibility to participate
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Question: Cooperation and Compromise
Answer: people have to work together and be willing to compromise to make the system work for everyone
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Question: Democracy Answer: a system of government that gives power to the people ================================================== Question: Citizen Rule Answer: citizens have the power to decide who will be the decision makers that run the government ================================================== Question: Majority Rule and Minority Rights Answer: majority decides on elections and issues, but the rights of the minority have to be protected in the process ================================================== Question: Individual Rights Answer: democracies protect the rights and freedom of individual people ================================================== Question: Free and Fair Elections Answer: adult citizens are granted the right to participate in regular elections ================================================== Question: Citizen Participation Answer: citizens have the right to vote also a responsibility to participate ================================================== Question: Cooperation and Compromise Answer: people have to work together and be willing to compromise to make the system work for everyone ==================================================

Characteristics Of Bipolar Disorder Typically Include Weegy

Question: What is personality?
Answer: Personality refers to one characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting. Study of personality is the study of individual differences. Includes finding out the basic dimensions of personality and what the biological roots of personality are and how it interacts with environment.
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Question: What are the four main approaches to the study of personality?
Answer: Psychoanalytic, Humanistic, Trait, Social Cognitive
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Question: Who was Sigmund Freud? What major contribution did he make to personality psychology? What were the main focuses of Freud's theory? What was his theory called?
Answer: Sigmund Freud (1856-1939): Austrian physician who lived and worked during Victorian era (marked by strict social conservatism and sexual repression);First major theory of personality
Though he got just about everything wrong, his theory was hugely influential.
This approach emphasizes childhood experiences, sexual/aggressive urges, and the unconscious mind.
; Psychoanalytic Approach
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Question: What is the unconscious? How does it relate to psychological disorder in Freud's theory? How did Freud try to cure his patients?
Answer: The unconscious refers to thoughts, feelings, wishes, memories, desires that are beneath surface of conscious awareness and thus we are not aware of having them
As a Dr. he was presented with symptoms that could not be explained medically. So he came up with the idea that symptoms that their problems were psychological and must stem from unconscious minds b/c they are unaware that they are psychological.
Freud believed that the unconscious mind held denied wishes and repressed memories that were influencing his patients' behaviors in a disguised way.
The patient needed to delve in and become aware of their unconscious problems and this would solve the problem. Solve through awareness.
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Question: How did Freud attempt to access the unconscious mind?
Answer: Two methods he used to get in unconscious mind were free association (having person say whatever pops into person's mind no matter how trivial or stupid it seems—once they became comfortable with this, the unconscious mind would slip out and show through in the association) and dream analysis (believed dreams were the royal road to the unconscious. Supposedly highly symbolic representations of the unconscious mind.
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Question: What are the structures of personality according to the psychoanalytic view? What are their characteristics? How do these relate to the iceberg analogy used by Freud?
Answer: Freud believed there were 3 components of personality
1. Id: born with this, contains basic instincts, unconscious
• Pleasure principle (urges one to do whatever feels good)
• Immediate gratification—no regard for rules—says I want it and I want it now (like devil)
2. Ego: develops later in life to satisfy id in more socially acceptable ways
• Reality principle: takes into account the restraints of reality
• Delays gratification of id
• Mediator between id and superego (listening to both)
3. Superego: develops between 4 and 5 yo as a kid internalizes values of its parents in society
• Services one conscience
• Operates according to morality principle—urges you to do what is right, ideal, and moral
• Demands perfection (must do it perfectly—responsible for feelings of guilt or pride
Iceberg analogy: most of iceberg is beneath surface—believed mind was similar, majority of the mind was unconscious or beneath the surface
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Question: What are defense mechanisms (in general)? What is repression?
Answer: With all this turmoil in the unconscious creates anxiety and Freud believe we used defense mechanisms that are unconscious psychological and behavioral tactics that hide/distort reality and protect a person from unpleasant emotions.
Freud believed the mother of all defense mechanisms was repression: pushing unpleasant thoughts out of conscious awareness
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Question: What are Freud's psychosexual stages of development and what happens during each? What are erogenous zones? What is fixation? What are the supposed characteristics of oral and anal fixation? What are the Oedipus and Electra complexes?
Answer: Believed personality developed in childhood as one goes through psycho-sexual stage.
In each stage, the id focuses on a certain erogenous zone (pleasure-sensitive area of body)
Conflict between satisfying urges and rules of society in each stage. If conflict is not resolved successfully, that can lead to fixation
Fixation is an enduring focus on a particular erogenous zone that reveals itself as maladaptive behavior in adult personality.

Oral stage: birth-18 months—erogenous zone is the mouth, infants obtain pleasure and satisfaction from sucking, biting and chewing. However, conflict comes when society wants weaning, but id doesn't want that. Oral fixation could be nail biting, chewing on things (this came from what Freud thinks is being weaned too early—constantly trying to satisfy oral urges—using biting sarcasm, eating a lot, etc.
Anal stage: 1.5-3 years—erogenous zone is the anus, Freud believed that toddlers obtained pleasure and satisfaction from expelling and attaining feces. The big conflict is when society demands toilet training. The id was no part of this, this id goes whenever it wants. When we describe someone as anal we consider them (fastidious, hyper-retentive, focused)—they would show these as adults if toilet trained too early and have an anal-retentive personality
Phallic stage: 3-6 years—erogenous zone is the genitals (penis and clitoris)
Boys go through an Oedipus complex—child has unconscious sexual desire for their mom, would like to have mom all to themselves, but dad is in the way. However, boy notices that girls don't have penises and thinks penis was cut off, so if he tries to compete with father, his penis will be cut off, so boy tries to be like dad and identify with him. Mom likes dad so if boy acts like dad, then mom will like him.
Electra complex: at first little girl sexually desires mom, but realizes she does not have a penis, so she develops penis envy and wishes she had a penis and wonders what happens to hers. She comes to the conclusions that her mom cut her penis off so since her mom is evil and mean she wants her father but is afraid of losing her mother's love so she represses her resentment of mom and identifies with mom trying to be like her and substitutes desire for a penis for a baby.
Latency period: 6-adolescent—nothing happens no erogenous zone
Genital stage: puberty-throughout life—erogenous zone is penis for males and vagina; if everything went well earlier you transfer previous desire for mom and dad to a more socially acceptable figure.
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Question: According to Alfred Adler, why do we struggle for superiority and power? P. 519
Answer: Adler (who had proposed the still-popular idea of the inferiority complex) himself struggled to overcome childhood illnesses and accidents, and he believed that much of our behavior is driven by efforts to conquer childhood inferiority feelings that trigger our strivings for superiority and power.
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Question: Who is associated with the idea of a collective unconscious? P. 519
Answer: Carl Jung
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Question: What is the modern version of the psychoanalytic approach?
Answer: Modern offshoot of Psychoanalytic theory is psychodynamic, which focuses more on inner conflicts, social relationships, and interplay between conscious and unconscious mind.
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Question: What are projective personality tests? What are the problems with them?
Answer: Projective personality tests involved having a person interpret or respond to ambiguous stimuli. It is believed that the person will project their unconscious mind in response to these ambiguous stimuli. Ex: Thematic Apperception Test—individual is shown several pictures of people in ambiguous situations. The respondent is asked to tell a story about what's happening in the set of pictures.
Rorschach Inkblot test—throw paint on a paper and fold it in half and have a person interpret it. Present problems b/c there is no universally agreed upon system for interpreting a person's answers.
One therapists interpretation can be different from another. Subjective interpretation. Not very reliable or valid.
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Question: What are the major problems with Freud's Psychoanalytic Theory?
Answer: • Unscientific: not testable
• After-the-fact explanations: Freud just made anything fit into the theory
• Not supported by research: people who are weaned early do not have particular personalities, and people who were potty trained earlier were not anal-retentive in adulthood
Showed that we are influenced by unconscious mind, but not like Freud believed.
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Question: What is the false consensus effect? p. 522
Answer: the tendency to overestimate the extent to which others share our beliefs and behaviors
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Question: What is the main premise of the humanistic approach? What does Rogers' Person-Centered Perspective indicate? What factors promote or inhibit growth according to this perspective?
Answer: • Very positive and optimistic when it comes to humanity
• Sees people as basically good rather than evil
• We are guided by an innate drive to fulfill our potential (reaching one's full potential is known as self-actualization
• Roger's Person Centered Theory:
o quality of personal relationships. Whether we can grow and reach our full potential rely on quality of personal relationships
o Requirements for these relationships are genuineness (being open with one's own true feelings), empathy (feeling what others feel), and acceptance (positively regarded by others)— this supports our personal growth
o Unconditional positive regard—pure genuine love with no strings attached, feeling accepted by love ones even though they know our faults
o Conditional positive regard— feeling that people in our lives will reject us if we don't conform to our standards or meet our expectiations.
o According to Roger's our progress toward fulfilling our potential will be thwarted if we can't behave in a self-consistent way (ex: if you are gay and pretend you are straight to please others)
• Criticized for too much focus on the self or being too positive when it comes to humanity. It's very vague and thus is difficult to research.
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Question: What is the trait approach? What is the purpose of factor analysis?
Answer: • Personality is seen as a combination of traits with people varying on how much of particular traits they possess
o Traits—specific, stable, internal characteristics.
• Trait theories differ in what fundamental dimensions/traits make up a personality
o Researchers come up with personality questionnaires and give these to large numbers of people
o Then perform a factor analysis on the results—mathematical procedure that ID's statistically correlated clusters of test items
• Finds patterns in the data that represent some basic trait
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Question: What are the dimensions of personality in Eysenck's trait theory? How did the Eysencks believe that these trait dimensions were biologically influenced? How do introverts and extraverts tend to differ?
Answer: • Introversion/extraversion are one dimension of this theory
o Highly introverted=solitary and reserved
o Extraversion=sociable and outgoing
• Emotional Stability/instability
o Stable=calm and relaxed
o Unstable=stable and anxious
• Believed these were genetically influenced and based on how reactive one's nervous system is as well as one's baseline level of arousal in the nervous system (how activated the brain is when nothing much is happening)
• Extraverts inherit low baseline levels of arousal which is why they seek out more stimulation and excitement to bring that arousal level up; more sensitive to reward and less sensitive to punishment. Less sensitive to pain than introverts. Experience more positive emotions. Wear more decorative clothing
• Introverts inherit high baseline levels of arousal so don't need to really seek out stimulation/excitement. Introverts are more reactive to stimuli than extraverts; less sensitive to reward, more sensitive to punishment. Have more neutral emotions whereas extraverts have more positive emotions. More likely to wear comfortable clothes over style.
• Introverts are more reactive to stimuli and thus salivate more to lemon juice on the tongue.
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Question: What is Gray's Biopsychological Theory? What is the behavioral approach system and behavioral inhibition system?
Answer: Gray's Biopsychological Trait Theory
• Personality comes from two related systems:
o Behavioral approach system (BAS)
• Affects our sensitivity to reward and our desire to seek out reward—more sensitive to rewards if you have a more active nervous system. People with very active nervous systems have more positive outlook but are more vulnerable to impulsivity. So attracted to award so they don't think about consequences as much.
o Behaviroal Inhibition system (BIS)
• Sensitivty to punishment—people with more active BIS seek hard to avoid punishment. Have more negative emotions and more vulnerable to anxiety.
• ** people with active BAS behave with what they want to happen, with active BIS behave in ways thinking of what they don't want to happen.
o These are supposed to be two independent dimensions so you can be high on both or low on both too.
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Question: What traits make up the Big Five Model of personality?
Answer: • 1. Conscientiousness
• 2. Agreeableness
• 3. Neuroticism (emotional stability vs. instability)
• 4. Openness
• 5. Extraversion
Widely researched/most widely accepted theory
(CANOE)
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Question: What is the NEO-PI-R? The MMPI?
Answer: Trait theory has led to objective personality tests. There are objective scoring methods that allow you to score tests
Typically these tests are Personality Inventory Tests that measure several traits at once: Ex: (Neuroticism Extraversion Openness Personality Inventory Revised—NEO-PI-R measures big 5, predicts career success, criminal behavior etc.
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventoryassesses big 5 plus all personality traits and diagnoses psychological disorders.
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Question: What is the social-cognitive approach?
Answer: The Social cognitive Approach: Recognizes the interaction between personality, thinking, behavior, and the situation.
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Question: What is Bandura's concept of reciprocal determinism?
Answer: • Reciprocal influence between personality and environment
• Our environments have an impact on how we think and how our personalities develop.
• However, it's also true that our personalities impact the environment. What environments you put yourself in. What activities you choose to engage in and who you choose to hang out with.
• Personalities have an impact on how we react to events which influences the situation and that reaction is influenced by personality.
• We are both products and producers of our environments
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Question: Can will-power/self-control be depleted? P. 538
Answer: Self-control temporarily weakens after an exertion, replenishes with rest, and becomes stronger with exercise. Exceeding willpower temporarily deplete the mental energy needed for self-control on other tasks, and even deplete the blood sugar and neural activity associated with mental focus.
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Question: What is Rotter's expectancy theory (of personal control)? What is meant by internal and external locus of control? What is learned helplessness and how does it relate to the concept of personal control?
Answer: • We behave according to what we expect to happen as a result of our behavior
• What we expect to happen as a result of our own behavior depends on a lot on our feelings of personal control.
• When it comes to personal control there are two types:
o Internal locus (place) of control: feels that their own behaviors have a huge impact on what happens to them. They have an expectation that their own efforts control events. Have a sense of control of their own lives, which is a good thing. Associated with achievement, health, independence, and well-being.
o External locus of control: lack a sense of control over their own lives. Feel that their behaviors have very little impact on what happens. Tend to believe that what happens to them is more a matter of luck or fate. Expect external forces to control them. Associated with depression and learned helplessness (tendency to give up on one's own effort to control the environment after previous efforts had no impact—stop trying when we learn our actions have no affect on our events—thus we fail when we could maybe succeed. It's a learned hopelessness). Common for individuals who have had repeated traumatic experiences over which they have no control. Experiencing helplessness leads us to be helplessness in the future. Classic experience done where dogs were placed into a chamber and subjected to electric shock. For half of the dogs, there was a lever in the box. If they hit the lever, the shock would stop. For other half of dogs, the lever did not stop the shock. Second part of experiment, dog placed into shuttle box. One side of box was wired to shock, other wasn't. For the dogs that previously had a lever would jump around and tried different things to get it to stop. The dogs that had no control just did nothing and didn't try to escape the shock. Learned helplessness has been found in a variety of animals such as slugs and cockroaches.
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Question: What is the relationship between control over one's environment, stress, health, and morale? P. 539
Answer: People given little control over their world in prisons, factories, colleges, and nursing homes experience lower morale and increased stress. Measures that increase control-- allowing prisoners to move chairs and control room and lights and the TV, having workers participate in decision making, offering nursing home patients choices about their environment.
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Question: Is having lots of choices generally better than having fewer choices? P. 539
Answer: Some freedom and control is better than none, but ever-increasing choice does not breed happier lives. Excess of freedom in today's western cultures contributes to decreasing life satisfaction, increased depression, and sometimes decisional paralysis. Tyranny of choice brings information overload and a greater likelihood that we will feel regret over some of the unchosen options.
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Question: What is the spotlight effect? p. 545
Answer: overestimating other's' noticing and evaluating our appearance, performance, and blunders (as if we presume a spotlight shines on us)
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Question: What is the relationship between self-esteem and aggressive behavior? What is defensive self-esteem?
Answer: • Refers to our feelings of self-worth
• Bad to have too much or too little. People with high self-esteem tend to be happier, less shy, less lonely
• Self-esteem is also related to talkativeness (higher self-esteem=more talkativeness—think they are more interesting)
• No relationship between self-esteem and GPA, but there is a relationship between self-esteem and violence/aggression (higher self-esteem=more likely aggressive/violent). People with unrealistic high self-esteem tend to become aggressive when their self-esteem is threatened or challenged by someone they see as inferior.
• Distinction between defensive and secure self-esteem. Defensive is fragile, insecure, and threatened in nature. Particularly likely to become aggressive when challenged. However, with secure, it doesn't matter what other people think. Their self-esteem is secure and not easily rattled. Less likely to become aggressive.
•
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Question: What is the self-serving bias? What is the better-than-average or above-average effect?
Answer: Self-serving bias: we have a a tendency think highly of ourselves. This is how we explain our successes and failures. When something good happens, we have a tendency to take credit, but when something bad happens we have a tendency to blame circumstances. Ex: we think of ourselves as being more attractive than we actually are. Researchers took a picture of each of their subjects and made a more attractive version and less attractive version. They were asked to pick themselves out of a line up and they were more quickly to pick up the more attractive version ourselves.

Better-than-average effect: we have a tendency to think we are above average. Think we are superior to our peers. This extends to things linked with us (like thinking your dog is smarter than others' dogs) We see ourselves as better than our friends, but we see our friends as better than others. Picking on your sibling is alright, but other people can't because we are better than our siblings and our siblings are better than other.
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Question: How does depression relate to the self-serving bias and realism?
Answer: Humans function best with self-serving bias. Lack of self-serving bias is linked to depression. Many studies suggest that people with depression actually judge themselves and the world more realistically than everyone else. Non-depressed subjects rate themselves more favorably than the observers. Depressed subjects were more close to observers.
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Question: What is psychopathology? What is abnormal psychology?
Answer: Psychopathology: deals a lot with psychological disorder (abnormal psychology)
Distinguishing between mental health emotion, and mental illness is difficult. Not a clear line.
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Question: How is psychological disorder defined?
Answer: Current definition: Ongoing patterns of thought, emotion, and behavior that impair functioning, deviate from the norm, cause distress, disrupt lives.
If someone is super depressed about something that is reasonable to be depressed about (such as divorce or ill child), should they be labeled as mentally ill?
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Question: How common are psychological disorders? When do they typically appear?
Answer: Lifetime prevalence for psychological disorders in the US is about 50%. About 40% of adults will experience psychological disorder.
Most people that get a disorder will show some symptoms by age 24.
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Question: How does the biopsychosocial model explain psychological disorder?
Answer: Biopsychosocial approach shows that psychological disorders result from a mixture of biological, psychological, and social factors.
• Biological factors: genes, physical abuse, drug abuse, disease
• Psychological factors: anxiety, how you interpret what happens to you, how you think about yourself (self-esteem)
• Sociocultural/environmental context: stress, poverty (people in poverty are more likely to suffer from a disorder—more stresses or there's evidence that psychological disorders cause poverty); disorders can take somewhat different forms in different
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Question: How are psychological disorders related to poverty?
Answer: poverty (people in poverty are more likely to suffer from a disorder—more stresses or there's evidence that psychological disorders cause poverty
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Question: How does culture influence psychological disorders? What are culture-general and cultural (culture-specific/culture-bound) disorders?
Answer: For example in China, depression manifests more as physical symptoms than in US. Most likely because mental problems have been highly stigmatized. Symtpoms influenced by culture.
Some disorders are culture-general (show up in every culture) ex: depression, schizophrenia (symptoms may vary but it's clear it's the same disorder)
Cultural disorders: culture-specific or culture-bound disorders (anorexia, bulimia)
Ex: Co-Ro (mostly in Asian cultures—fear that penis will shoot up into abdomen and kill them)
Differences in how cultures experience distress
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Question: How does the diathesis-stress model explain psychological disorders?
Answer: Diathesis-stress model: whether you get a psychological disorder or not depends upon your degree of predisposition (genetic factors, prenatal events, early-life experiences) and the amount of stress you experience
If you have a high predisposition it will take little stress to trigger a disorder. If you have a low predisposition it will take high stress to trigger a disorder
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Question: What is the DSM-V?
Answer: Diagnostic and Statistical manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5). Consistency in criteria of disorders
Based on rigorous research
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Question: In what ways can applying a diagnostic label to someone be stigmatizing?
Answer: Problem—applying a diagnostic label to someone can be stigmatizing. If someone is labeled as mentally ill, it changes the way people perceive and interpret their behaviors, so even normal behaviors may be seen as evidence of their disorders.
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Question: What are anxiety disorders? What are the anxiety disorders we covered? Know major symptoms, definitions of terms associated with the disorders, how the disorders differ from each other.
Answer: Anxiety Disorders:
Psychological and physical symptoms: fear, nervousness, dread psychological
Physically they will often show signs of sympathetic nervous system arousal (sweatiness, fast heart beat, trembling)
Everyone experiences anxiety but when it is excessive, long-lasting, or disruptive then it would be considered a disorder
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Question: Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Answer: Generalized Anxiety Disordder
Excessive, long lasting, free-floating (occurring for no particular reason), anxiety
They show dread, distractibility, irritability, tense, worry, hypervigilant (constantly monitoring surroundings for threat), insomnia, exaggerated startle (overreacting when startled), nausea, dizziness
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Question: Panic disorder
Answer: Panic Disorder
Recurrent unpredictable panic attacks. Panic attacks are sudden episodes of intense anxiety. Very brief but absolutely terrifying. Panic attacks can be confused with heart attacks, feel like they might die.
People who experience these panic attacks can lead to fear of experiencing them which can lead to agoraphobia (fear or avoidance of situations in which escape may be difficult or in which help might not be available) ex: on a bus or subway, or in severe cases people may stay in home.
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Question: Specific phobia
Answer: Specific phobia: excessive, strong, irrational fear of particular situations or things. The fear is disproportionate to the threat actually posed by the object. They typically know their fear is irrational but can't help it.
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Question: Social Anxiety Disorder :(
Answer: Social anxiety disorder: fear of other people's judgments, fear they will act in a way that will embarrass themselves, so they often avoid social situations.
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Question: What are some biological and psychological factors involved in anxiety disorders?
Answer: Biological Factors:
People who have anxiety disorders have more reactive and sensitive brains and autonomic nervous systems.
Genetic predisposition
Psychological:
Neuroticism, attentional bias (more likely to remember and notice possibly threatening stimuli)
More likely to interpret ambiguous situations as threatening
Low self-efficacy: don't feel they will be able to cope
Various learning processes affected, various phobias can result from classical conditioning or observational learning
Negative/stressful events are social factors that can worsen or bring on anxiety disorders
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Question: What is posttraumatic stress disorder? Who tends to get it?
Answer: Flashbacks, nightmares, haunting memories, jumpy, cranky, withdrawn, insomnia
Common among veterans/sexual assault victims; happens with horrific/uncontrollable events
Vulnerability to stress—more reactive nervous systems
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Question: What is obsessive-compulsive disorder? What are obsessions and compulsions?
Answer: Experiences persistent, upsetting thoughts that produce the urge to engage in repetitive ritualistic behaviors.
Obsessions lead to uncontrollable thoughts, doubts, images, and impulses that just pop into your mind. These typically create anxiety that fuels compulsions. Compulsion is the repetitive behaviors, urge to engage in these. The compulsions temporarily relieve the person from the anxiety that arises (includes washing, counting, checking, arranging, and repeating)
Compulsions are very time-consuming and can take away from the person's life.
OCD tends to run in families. Genetic component. Link to serotonin and glutamate. Neurotransmitter abnormalities. Abnormalities in certain parts of the brain.
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Question: What is major depressive disorder? What are the symptoms and features?
Answer: Psychological Symptoms
Sadness, guilt, low self-esteem, pessimism, crying, anhedonia (can't experience pleasure form usually enjoyable activities), anxiety, poor concentration, isolation
Physical symptoms
Change in eating and sleeping, pain, low energy, weakened immune system
For at least 2 weeks
Recurrent episodes
a mental disorder characterized by a pervasive and persistent low mood that is accompanied by low self-esteem and by a loss of interest or pleasure in normally enjoyable activities.
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Question: What are some of the biological, psychological, and social factors involved in depression?
Answer: Biological factors:
Genetic predisposition—can run in family
Neurotransmitters affected include serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine
Drugs that treat it are usually agonists of one or more of these neurotransmitters
Smoking can increase activity with these neurotransmitters
Can have an increased stress response—body reacts more to stress/releases more stress hormones compares to others.

Psychological and social factors:
Learned helplessness and external locus of control (lack sense of control over their lives)
More intense reaction to negative events and less intense reaction to positive events
Greater tendency to be a perfectionist. You'll never be perfect so you will constantly be disappointed/never satisfied.
Negative explanatory style: meaning they jump to overly generalized, pessimistic, self-blaming conclusions. Explain events in a negative way. (ex: depression sufferers will think after a break-up that they will never have another relationship)
Stressful circumstances contribute.
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Question: What is bipolar disorder? What are the symptoms of mania?
Answer: Also known as manic depression
They show extremes of mood that are unrelated to circumstances or events in their lives. One extreme resembles major depression. The other extreme is called mania.
Mania: a very agitated emotional state (almost the opposite of depression)
• Emotionally: euphoric, irritable b/c they are inpatient with other people.
• Cognition: Individual displays total optimism and thinks nothing can go wrong. Grandiose (over the top—make grand gestures, believe they are capable of great things). Impaired judgment b/c of ideas that are unrealistic, very easily distracted.
• Behavior: hyperactivity—unlimited energy, decreased need for sleep (insomnia), talkative (pressured speech where there seems to be a lot of force behind their words), may exhibit silliness, engage in reckless behaviors b/c they feel invincible
May alternate between periods of mania and depression, but often have periods of normalcy.
Typically shows up in the 20s; strong genetic predisposition for it. Runs in families. Also associated with creativity. Abnormalities in prefrontal cortex; too much norepinephrine.
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Question: What is schizophrenia? What are the symptoms? Know definitions and characteristics of the symptoms we covered. For instance, what are hallucinations and delusions? What are the most common types of hallucinations in schizophrenia? What are the different types of delusions we covered? What are loose associations? What is flat affect?
Answer: Severely disordered and irrational thoughts and ideas
Distorted perceptions
Inappropriate emotions and behaviors
Psychosis: loss of contact with reality
Do not have multiple personalities
Schizophrenia (split mind—split with reality)
Found in all cultures—one of the most disabling of psychological disorders. Quite common for people with schizophrenia to not realize they are ill and thus it is hard to get them treatment.

Major symptoms of Schizophrenia:
(person with schizophrenia will not typically have all of these)
• Hallucinations: perception without sensory input (see things, smell, taste things, but auditory hallucinations are the most common—come in the form of voices, may give them orders, provide commentary on actions, insult or laugh at them)
• Delusions: a belief that is firmly held despite a lack of objective supporting evidence; persecution (believes that others are plotting against them), grandeur (believes they are much greater than they actually are—may believe they are divine or have super powers, world leaders are trying to contact them for advice), reference (unrelated events are personally relevant). Can lead to bizarre behaviors.
• Attentional problems: easily distracted; filtering (difficulty filtering out extraneous/unimportant stimuli) so attention isn't as selective as others.
• Disorganized thinking and speech: thoughts and speech jump around; exhibit loose associations—jumping from topic to topic. Thoughts are only loosely connected.
• Emotional disturbances: inappropriate emotions (laughing at something sad); flat affect (absence of emotion—speaking in monotone voice, no change in facial expression);
• Social withdraw—delusions of persecution/paranoia—believe others are out to get them; trouble relating to most people—living in a different reality
• Motor disturbance/Catatonia: Catatonic stupor: rigid immobility for hours on end; waxy flexibility: put them in a position and stay until muscle gets tired and it drops. Repetitive compulsive behaviors that seem to have no purpose (rock back and forth or clap)
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Question: What are the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and why is this distinction important?
Answer: Positive (presence—not good) symptoms of schizophrenia: presence of inappropriate behaviors. Additions of abnormality. (extra cards that shouldn't be in the deck). Hallucinations, delusions, inappropriate emotion, repetitive compulsive behaviors.
Negative symptoms: absence of normal behavior. Behavioral deficits. Not showing the normal amount of behavior. (missing cards that should be there). Flat affect (showing less than the normal amount of emotion), social withdraw, lack of goal-directed behavior, lack of purposeful movement
These are important b/c someone who has primarily positive symptoms is more likely to respond to medicine and get better. Someone with negative symptoms is less likely to get better.
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Question: When does schizophrenia develop? What factors predict outcome?
Answer: Schizophrenia typically develops in the 20s or late teens. It may develop suddenly or may come on more gradually. If it comes on suddenly and seems to be a response to stress, the person is more likely to recover.
However, if it comes on more gradually, the person is less likely to get better.
May be episodic or chronic. May have one episode and never have it again or repeated episodes with periods of relative normalcy. Or chronic in which it's always there. Most common course is repeated episodes.
Very difficult to treat and most do not realize they are ill, so it's hard to get them to get treatment and they will often stop taking medicine.
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Question: What are some biological factors associated with schizophrenia as covered in class?
Answer: Biological factors: genetic predisposition—if relative has it, then you are more likely; if identical twin has it, 50% chance other will have it.
Genes influence how vulnerable you are to getting it. Kids who are adopted and raised by someone with schizophrenia does not influence if kid will get it. So thus it is not something learned.
Schizo linked to over activity of dopamine in certain parts of the brain. Most of the drugs that treat it block certain dopamine receptors. Typically only help with positive symptoms.
Negative symptoms due more to a deficit in glutamate.
Also associated with various abnormalities in structure/function of brain
One of the most consistent abnormalities is an enlargement in the cerebro-ventricles. More fluid so less space for brain tissue.
Neurodevelopmental events:
Low birth weight for gestational age or at greater risk for schizophrenia.
Oxygen deprivation during birth show greater likelihood for getting schizo later
Older biological father linked.
Prenatal viral infection (flu-like experienced by mother during mid-pregnancy-2nd trimester) may be linked to schizo.
Psychological and sociocultural factors don't seem to play an enormous role in schizo. Stress however can precipitate the disorder or make it worse. Various cultural factors also have impact on course of schizo. How much social support you have is a factor in severity.
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Question: What characterizes personality disorders?
Answer: Disruptive, long-standing, inflexible, dysfunctional behavioral patterns and thoughts that impair social functioning
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Question: What is antisocial personality disorder?
Answer: Psychopaths, sociopaths
Does not refer to someone who would like to be alone
Rather antisocial in this case refers to someone who shows a pervasive pattern in disregard for the violation of rights of others. Going against the rules/standards of society.
To be diagnosed you must exhibit a lack of conscience by the age of 15.
As an adult, people with ASPD they tend to be irresponsible, impulsive, callous (don't care about others' feelings) manipulative, arrogant, deceitful, problems holding jobs or keeping relationships, lie if it benefits them, relative lack of fear, anxiety, remorse, and guilt.
Less sensitive to punishment than other people are. Threat of punishment does not really deter them.
May be charming, intelligent and when they have those characteristics they can be excellent con artists.
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Question: What are the psychological, behavioral, and biological features of this disorder? What are some biological and social factors that may contribute to this disorder?
Answer: Biological Factors:
Kids who have biological parents with the disorder and are adopted are at a greater risked, and also kids who are raised by an unrelated parent with the disorder are at a greater risk showing that it is somewhat learned.
Minimal physiological arousal under stress (which is genetically influenced and possibly predisposes people to it)—why people can sometimes pass lie detectors
Lower levels of stress hormones released.
Brains don't react as much to stressful circumstances. Diminished physical response to distress.

Psychosocial factors:
Poverty
Instability
Abuse
All increase risk for ASPD

Difficult to treat b/c it's usually not a problem for themselves it's a problem to everyone else and if they do end up in therapy they will end up manipulating the theorists.
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Question: What are the two main types of treatment for psychological disorders?
Answer: Psychotherapy: process in which a trained therapist uses psychological techniques in order to improve the function or increase happiness of patient.

Biomedical therapy: medication or medical procedures to treat, more serious biologically-based disorders.
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Question: What is the eclectic approach? P. 652
Answer: an approach to psychotherapy that, depending on the client's problems, uses techniques from various forms of therapy.
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Question: What was the first psychotherapy and who developed it?
Answer: Psychoanalytic therapy
Classical psychoanalysis: make person aware of repressed, unconscious conflicts and impulses. Developed by Freud.
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Question: What is the aim of psychoanalysis? What is the main focus of psychodynamic therapy?
Answer: Trying to get into patient's unconscious minds. Delving into unconscious to see what is causing problems. By making them aware of the unconscious conflicts that would make the problems go away.
Free association (just talking), dreams
Not very common today b/c it involved several visits a week for years.
Psychodymanic therapy is the more contemporary variation: focus on social relationships (examining how past influences the present—helping a person understand why they think, act, and feel the way they do)
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Question: What are the goals of Humanistic psychotherapy? What are the characteristics and methods of Rogers's Client-Centered Therapy?
Answer: Goals: to enhance self-awareness and self-acceptance. Moving the barriers that are preventing a person from reaching their full potential.
This type of therapy is for self-improvement and facilitating growth.

Roger's Client-centered Therapy: Role of therapist is to sit back, listen, and provide support and companionship. Refrain from offering advice, judging, or interpreting b/c it's believed that client can solve own problems and if they help that will undermine their confidence.
Provide their clients with genuineness, empathy, and acceptance.
• Acceptance is demonstrated by providing the client with unconditional positive regard (therapist truly needs to feel this unconditional positive regard).
• Empathy shown by active listening technique called reflection. Involves paraphrasing what the client just said. Supposed to make client feel heard and encourage the client to expand on what they are talking about
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Question: What is the general focus and goal of behavior therapy? What is exposure with response prevention (flooding)? What is systematic desensitization?
Answer: Behavior therapy: psychological problems are seen as learned behaviors.
Goal: to use the principles of learning to extinguish undesirable behavior and teach more adaptive behavior. Some techinques:
• Exposure with response prevention (flooding): helps people with fears. Goal is to expose client to whatever it is they fear and prevent them from escaping. Put in feared but harmless situation. Hardest thing about this is getting people to do this b/c it's difficult to get them to be fully exposed to things they fear.
• Systematic desensitization: replace fear with relaxation (more gradual than flooding) client is gradually exposed to increasingly intense versions of feared stimulus while relaxing. Client is first taught relaxation techniques—practice on their own until they are good at inducing relaxation. Therapist and client create a fear/desensitization hierarchy (a list of increasingly intense versions of the feared stimulus). Shown first item on the list and if they experience anxiety then they induce relaxation and keep doing this until it doesn't bother them.
• Helps with phobia/OCD and fears
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Question: What is the main goal of the cognitive therapies? What are some techniques used in cognitive therapies?
Answer: Therapists focus on the role that thinking plays in psychological disorders such as depression and various anxiety disorders.
Goal: to replace maladaptive thinking with thoughts that are more constructive rather than destructive.
Therapists points out how irrational some of the client's thinking is. (client says: "everybody hates me" therapist responds to combat this
Self-statement modification: replacing negative mental statements with positive mental statements. Asked to write down positive events that happened each day and how that contributed to them. Gets them focusing more on positive things.
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Question: What is electroconvulsive shock therapy? For what is it used today? Is it effective? What is the main side effect?
Answer: Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT): electric current applied to scalp to cause convulsions.
Used to be used for all kinds of things and used such high voltage that people could break bones or have cardiac arrest.
Still used today but not nearly as brutal/used as much.
First given sedative/muscle relaxer and not awake when shock is applied. Not as strong of a current.
Used to treat severe depression/bipolar disorder when nothing else works. Very effective for depression that hasn't been treated by medicine. Not known why it work.
Major side affect is memory loss. Have trouble remembering events that occurred in hours prior to shock. Sometimes further back memories.
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Question: What is psychosurgery? What is prefrontal and transorbital lobotomy? What were the general effects of lobotomy?
Answer: Psychosurgery:
Removal/destruction of brain tissue—extremely rare today. More likely to involve implantation of electrodes into brain today.
Prefrontal lobotomy: cut connections between frontal lobes (prefrontal cortex) and limbic areas
Dr. Egas Moniz, Nobel prize winner, noticed that chimpanzees became calmer when part of brain was removed. Lobotomy caught on greatly for serious mental illness or just for being moody/difficult/problematic/defiant/headaches/backaches
Very imprecise procedure.
Variable results: lethargy, immaturity, impulsivity, loss of personality/creativity.
Walter Freeman (a neurologist) came up with a stream-line version of lobotomy—transorbital lobotomy—shock patient into unconsciousness, pull eye-lid up, push eye aside, stick icepick in, twirl it around, and be done in 10 min. Personally did many, many surgeries.
Today it is very sterile, head is held in place and they avoid as much damage as possible.

Rosemary Kennedy was given a lobotomy at age 23. It was a disaster.
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Question: What are neuroleptics/antipsychotics (Haldol, thorazine, Risperdal) used to treat? How do they affect dopamine? What is tardive dyskinesia?
Answer: Antipsychotics/Neuroleptics:
Drugs used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic states.
Dopamine antagonists.
More affective for positive sysmptoms rather than negative
Older ("typical") drugs: Throazine, Haldol, Newer (atypical) drugs: Colzapine, Risperdal, Zyprexa
Side effects: Tardive dyskinesia—irreversible syndrome of uncontrollable, repetitive movements.
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Question: What are the general classes of antidepressants and which are most commonly prescribed today? What are SSRI's (Prozac, Zoloft)?
Answer: Newer Antidepressenants are SSRI's, they are things like (neuron releases neurotransmitter and then reuptakes them) SSRI then stops the reuptake and keeps them in the synapse which allows them to continually bind to the receptors. Increase serotonin activity. Ex: Zoloft, Prozac, paxil.
SSRI is most effective in treating severe depression or someone with a family history. Aren't as effective for mild depression.
Anti depressants are n't just affective for depression but also for OCD and anxiety. They are agonists of serotonin (5-HT) and/or norepinephrine and/or dopamine (DA).
MAO-I's aren't as prescribed any more because they have a lot of side effects that react with things
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Question: How long does it generally take for antidepressants to become effective? Are antidepressants happy pills? Do they prevent sadness?
Answer: Typically takes about 4-6 weeks to reach the full effectiveness.
Antidepressants aren't happy pills. They don't make someone constantly happy. The person can still get sad, but they prevent deep long-lasting sadness.
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Question: What are mood stabilizers (lithium) and what do they treat?
Answer: Mood stabiliziers treat bipolar disorder. Lithium is the most common thing used to treat bipolar disorder. Treats both mania and depression, but better at treating mania. If lithium doesn't work. A combination of anticonvulsants plus antidepressants is used.
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Question: What are anxiolytics used to treat? What are benzodiazepines (valium, Xanax)? How do they work (neurotransmitter)?
Answer: Anxiolytics: drugs to treat anxiety
Tranquilizers; drowsiness, relaxation
Benzodiazepines (valium, Xanax, Librium, etc), GABA agonists, Addictive.
Antidepressants (particularly SSRIs) can be good at treating anxiety too.
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Question: What is social psychology?
Answer: Social psychology: how we think about, influence, and relate to one another. Focuses on situational influences.
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Question: What are attributions? Dispositional/internal attributions? Situational/external attributions?
Answer: Social thinking:
Involves explaining behavior whether it is our own or others'. Explaining behavior often involves making attributions (process of making inferences about the reason or causes of behavior/event)
Two types of attributions we make when explaining behavior:
• Disposition/internal attribution: we infer that their behavior is caused by their personality. Stable internal characteristic is causing them to behave the way they do.
• Situational/external attribution: behavior is caused by the circumstances they are experiencing.
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Question: What is the fundamental attribution error? What is the actor-observer bias?
Answer: The fundamental attribution error: the tendency to overestimate dispositional factors and underestimate situational factors when judging the behavior of others. Judging the behavior of someone we don't know well... we tend to attribute their behavior more to their personality than their situation. (ex: bad waiter) (study in which people told woman is acting but attributed it to her personality regardless) Very common, and happens everywhere, but more prevalent in individualistic cultures.
The actor-observer bias: we tend to make dispositional attributions for others' behaviors and situational attributions for our own (bad) behaviors. Combination of fundamental attribution error and self-serving bias. We are more aware of situational influences on our behavior (actor), but as the observer we're less aware of the situation.
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Question: What are attitudes? How do attitudes relate to actions?
Answer: Attitudes and Actions
Attitudes: feelings that predispose our reactions.
Attitudes have an impact on behavior, influence our daily actions. Attitudes affect actions, but actions also affect attitudes.
We seek consistency between what we say think and do. When our attitudes/actions don't match we get cognitive dissonance
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Question: What is cognitive dissonance? What is cognitive dissonance theory? What happened in the Festinger & Carlsmith study?
Answer: Cognitive dissonance: tension when attitudes and actions don't match
We want to change attitudes to match behavior to justify actions. If we can't justify, then according to this theory we will change our attitude to match the behavior.
Festinger and Carlsmith (1959)
Boring task, subject is asked to lie to another subject and tell them the study is really fun. Half is offered $1 to lie, the other half is offered $20.
The subjects given $1 liked the study more than those paid $20. Those who are paid $20 could justify why they lied and thus experienced less cognitive dissonance. Those paid $1 did not have as much justification for the lie they told—thus they convinced themselves that the task was fun and interesting b/c of cognitive dissonance.
Working hard to obtain a goal makes us value the goal even more. You convince yourself that a harder-to-get A is more valuable.
Also explains hazing (if you are hazed then you value being in the group more). Doing can result in believing.
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Question: What happened in the Zimbardo prison study (aka Stanford prison experiment)? What is the main lesson of this study?
Answer: Role Absorption
Zimbardo Prison Study (Stanford Prison Experiment) 1971—college males were extensively tested and chosen to take part in the study
Prison set up, and randomly, half of them were guards and half were prisoners. Things got so bad that the study was canceled after 2 weeks. The subjects forgot that they weren't actually guards or prisoners.
Illustrates how easily we can lose ourselves ina role.
Situations exert powerful influences on behavior.
Some situations are so strong that they can affect the personalities of the people.
Situational pressures/social pressures can keep people in bad situations. We think we would react differently but you must remember that whenw e are the observer we aren't aware of the full situation.
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Question: What is conformity?
Answer: Conformity: changing belief or behavior to match other people due to unspoken group pressure.
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Question: Compliance?
Answer: Compliance (step up from conformity): going along with a request from someone who is not an authority figure.
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Question: Obedience?
Answer: Obedience: giving in to explicit demand from authority
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Question: What happened in the Asch conformity experiments?
Answer: Classic experiements done by Solomon Asch (Asch Conformity Experiemnts) in 1960s. People give obvious wrong answer, when others give that answer. Which line is the same length?
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Question: What are social norms?
Answer: Social norms: learned rules of a culture about what to do in particular situations. We conform because we want to be accepted, not be the weird one.
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Question: What is the foot-in-the-door technique? The door-in-the-face technique?
Answer: • Indirect mehtods:
o Foot-in-the-door technique: asking someone a small request that they will agree too and then asking a larger request after b/c the person will be more likely to agree. (If you say you want to help disabled kid and then not actually buy a toy, that will create cognitive dissonance b/c we don't like inconsistencies in our actions/thoughts/words).
o Door-in-the-face technique: (opposite) start with a large unreasonable request that is unlikely to be denied, then follow up with a smaller request. People will be more likely to follow up with smaller request b/c it doesn't seem like so much in comparison to the first major request.
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Question: What happened in Milgram's obedience studies?
Answer: Milgram's obedience studies:
• Subject: teacher
• Confederate: learner (confederate means they are in on the study)
• Teacher is instructed to read lists of words to learner and then tests the learner. Whenever the learner gives the wrong answer, they are shocked. Learner is strapped into chair that gives electric shock and then teacher is taken into separate room. When learner makes a mistake over intercom, teacher shocks them and shock increases each time by 15. Things are good at first but at around 75 volts, the learner starts to react. By 150 volts, the person is yelling and says they wants to quit the study. In actuality, no one was actually shocked. Researcher urges you to continue. Around 330 volts, the learner stops responding and the researcher tells you to treat no answer as a wrong answer.
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Question: What were the results of Milgram's study?
Answer: People surveyed thought that the teacher would stop when the person first experienced pain. However, 65% (2/3) of people went all the way to 450 volts.
• Study is not ethical by today's standards.
• He told subjects immediately afterwards that you didn't actually shock someone. Those were emotionally distressed were sent to a psychiatrists and no one seemed to really be permanently screwed up. No one said they regretted doing the study. Subjects today go to 150 volts at a similar percent as they did in Milgram's. Rates of obedience today are pretty similar to what it was in 1960s.
• Foot-in-the-door effect is at work—when the change is gradual we don't realize the extent.
• Historical examples: you don't have to look far for examples. Nazi Germany (regular people built camps). Americans slaughtered innocent people in Vietnam War.
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Question: What was the main conclusion of Milgram's studies?

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Question: What is the chameleon effect? p. 560
Answer: We take on emotional tones of those around us. Just hearing someone reading a neutral text in either a happy or sad sounding voice creates mood contagion in listeners. We are natural mimics unconsciously imitating others' expressions, postures, and voice tones
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Question: What is deindividuation? P. 568
Answer: the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity
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Question: What is group polarization? P. 569-570
Answer: the enhancement of a group's prevailing inclinations through discussion within the group (if you are business savvy at a college b/c that college is business savvy in general your freshman year, you will probably become more business savvy by the time you graduate)
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Question: What is groupthink? Under what conditions is groupthink most likely to occur? How can it be prevented? P. 570-571
Answer: groupthink: the mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives. Fed by overconfidence, conformity, self-justification, and group polarization. prevented when a leader welcomes various opinions, invites experts' critiques of developing plans, and assigns people to identify possible problems.
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Question: What are stereotypes? What is prejudice? What is discrimination?
Answer: Stereotypes: beliefs about entire groups of people, typically involve false assumptions that all members of a group share the same characteristics.
Prejudice: involves attitude/judgement based only on group membership.
Discrimination is the differential treatment of people due to group membership.
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Question: How does prejudice maintain inequality?
Answer: Unjusitifed negative (sometimes positive) evaluation of someone based only on group membership. Tends to bias how we interpret the behavior of others. Can affect us automatically and unconsciously. Sexism and racism are examples. Serves as a legitimizing ideologies (the purpose is to justify and maintain inequalities by suggesting that some people are less worthy or capable as others)
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Question: What are overt attitudes? implicit attitudes? What do measures of implicit attitudes reveal?
Answer: Prejudice can be:
• Overt: what we consciously express/are consciously aware of having
• Implicit: unconscious attitudes.
• Overt/implicit attitudes do not always match.
• When asked, most Americans say they are not prejudice, however, assessment of implicit attitudes shows that they are more prejudice than they realize or are willing to admit.
• Implicit Association Test (IAT): reveals how closely connected particular concepts are in our minds by how quickly we can assosicate words and/or pictures. (positive/negative words with black/white faces—white americans are better at pairing negative words with black faces and positive with white showing that we are somewhat implicitly biased).
• Our imiplicit attitudes reveal our unconscious, automatic influence (this can greatly affect our knee-jerk reactions)—to shoot or not to shoot, subjects are more likely to shoot a black person with a tool or gun versus a white man with a tool or gun.
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Question: What are some of the roots of prejudice as discussed in class? (illusory correlations, confirmation bias, ingroup favoritism, learning, scapegoating, social inequalities, just-world phenomenon, hindsight bias, blaming the victim, lack of awareness)
Answer: Roots of Prejudice
• Tendency to categorize things and people in order to simplify the world. We put people in social categories based on ethnicity, gender, age etc.
• Once we categorize we overestimate the similarities in that category unless it's a category we belong to. We tend to think bad behaviors are characteristic of the entire group (illusory correlation) behavior of one person associated with whole group.
• Confirmation bias: tendency to seek out and pay more attention to info that confirms our beliefs. If we believe in stereotypes, we are more likely to notice events that support those stereotypes.
• Ingroup favoritism: people evaluate members of their own group more favorably than those outside of their group.
• Learning is also a factor; prejudice/stereotypes are learned. Even little kids can be familiar with societal attitudes.
• White kids show a stronger positive bias toward white than black kids do for blacks.
• Scapegoating refers to when frustrated people blame others as an outlet/when things go wrong. (ex: "They took our jobs!")
• Existence of systematic social inequalities: some people on average start off with more and have an easier path to success than others. Those that have wealth tend to justify their own position in society as well as those who have little to none.
• Example of this is the Just-world phenomenon: the world is a fair place—people typically get what they deserve. Thus, if something good happens to someone, they must of done something to deserve it, if something bad happens, they must have done something to deserve it. People often see position of the poor as justly deserved. (Wealthy people work hard, poor don't.) This can lead people to unfairly blame victims for their misfortunes—if they are sufferings it must be bc they are being punished. Another example, woman is watched receiving shocks and the subjects were asked to rate the woman on a variety of things and they tended to berate the woman instead of feel sympathy. This was more strongly pronounced in people who believed in a just-world. Thought the woman deserved this.
• Hindsight bias: the tendency for outcomes to seem obvious once they have occurred. Tend to think that we would have foreseen the outcome of some events ahead of time. This can also lead to unfair blaming of victims (we will think they should have seen this coming or known this happened or we would have known better had we been in their situation). Ex: subjects asked to read detailed description of date, at end half subjects' story said the woman was raped, other half ended normally. The one's with rape ending identified things in the woman's behavior that led to the assault, but those without the ending saw nothing.
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Question: Do those who enjoy privilege in a society tend to be aware of their privilege?
Answer: • People who enjoy privilege in a society often fail to recognize the ways in which they benefit from their privilege status. It is taken for granted. People with privilege may deny that it exists and perceive others as whiny and demanding when they just want equal rights. People of color tend to be stopped by police a lot.
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Question: What is the bystander effect? How does the case of Kitty Genovese relate to the bystander effect? What is diffusion of responsibility?
Answer: The Bystander Effect: the presence of other people inhibits helping. The more bystanders there are, the less likely it is that any one of those bystanders will help. Research on bystander effect was jump started by murder of Kitty Genovese (1964)—bar manager returning to apartment and was attacked by random man and was screaming for help, she was just about in apartment and the guy returned and attacked her again. Some details are in dispute, but initial report is that about 30 neighbors heard or saw. Lights were flickering on in the apartments around. Police weren't called until 30 min later. More people who are around, the less responsible they feel. One way to deal is to point to a specific person and tell them to get help.
Diffusion of responsibility: Diffusion of responsibility is a sociopsychological phenomenon whereby a person is less likely to take responsibility for action or inaction when others are present.
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Question: What are some factors involved in helping?
Answer: More likely to help someone if they clearly need help—sure they are having an emergency.
If we know them
If we believe they deserve our help
If the person seems similar to us
If we are not in a big hurry
If we are in a good mood (feel-good, do-good: happy people are more helpful)
Population density (more dense an area is populated—the less likely it is for ppl to help; this is cross-cultural)
Cost and benefits
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Question: What is the mere-exposure effect?
Answer: Keys to attraction: physical proximity—geographic nearness (we tend to like/love/marry people we live near/work near/run into regularly)
Part of this is because of mere-exposure effect—we prefer things that are familiar to us. Other things being equal—familiarity tends to breed liking.
"bird of a feather flock together" more often than opposites attract. We more often like people who share our attitudes, beliefs, interests, opinions, habits, background, religion, race, education, intelligence, SES?
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Question: How does love tend to change over the course of time (in terms of passionate and companionate love)?

Companionate love: deep, intimate, and steady love.
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Question: What are social scripts and how might the scripts provided by the media influence sexual and/or aggressive behavior? P. 582
Answer: Social scripts: culturally modeled guide for how to act in various situations; After so many action films, youngsters may acquire a script that plays in their head when they face real-life conflicts. Challenged, they may "act like a man" by intimidating or eliminating the threat. Likewise, after viewing the multiple sexual innuendoes and acts found in most prime-time TV hours-- often involving impulsive or short-term relationships--youths may acquire sexual scripts they later enact in real-life relationships. Music lyrics also write social scripts. In one set of experiments, German university men administered hotter chili sauce to a woman and recalled more negative feelings and beliefs about women after listening to woman-hating song lyrics. Man-hating song lyrics had a similar effect on the aggressive behavior of women listeners.
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Question: What do laboratory experiments indicate regarding the effects of exposure to pornography? P. 582-583
Answer: Watching porn can cause people to accept the rape myth-- the idea that some women invite or enjoy rape and get "swept away" while being "taken." Surveys indicate that more men watch porn. Most consumers of porn commit no known sexual crimes, but they are more likely to accept the rape myth as reality. People heavily exposed to porn see the world as more sexual. One's own partner seems less attractive. Extramarital sex seems less troubling. A woman's friendliness seems more sexual. Sexual aggression seems less serious. These effects feed the ingredients of coercion against women.
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Question: What are mirror-image perceptions? P. 598
Answer: mutual views often held by conflicting people, as when each side sees itself as ethical and peaceful and views the other side as evil aggressive.
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Question: What does the GRIT strategy entail? P. 601
Answer: GRIT: graduated and Reciprocated Initiatives in Tension-Reduction--a strategy designed to decrease international tensions. One side first announces its recognition of mutual interests and its intent to reduce tensions. It then initiates one or more conciliatory acts. Without weakening one's retaliatory capability, this modest beginning opens the door for reciprocity by the other party. Should the enemy respond with hostility, one reciprocates in kind. But so, too, with any conciliatory response.
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Question: What is personality? Answer: Personality refers to one characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting. Study of pe…Question: What is personality? Answer: Personality refers to one characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting. Study of personality is the stud”Question: What is personality? Answer: Personality refers to one characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting. Study of personality is the study of individual differences. Includes finding out the basic dimensions of personality and what the biological roots of personality are and how it interacts with environment. ================================================== Question: What are the four main approaches to the study of personality? Answer: Psychoanalytic, Humanistic, Trait, Social Cognitive ================================================== Question: Who was Sigmund Freud? What major contribution did he make to personality psychology? What were the main focuses of Freud's theory? What was his theory called? Answer: Sigmund Freud (1856-1939): Austrian physician who lived and worked during Victorian era (marked by strict social conservatism and sexual repression);First major theory of personality Though he got just about everything wrong, his theory was hugely influential. This approach emphasizes childhood experiences, sexual/aggressive urges, and the unconscious mind. ; Psychoanalytic Approach ================================================== Question: What is the unconscious? How does it relate to psychological disorder in Freud's theory? How did Freud try to cure his patients? Answer: The unconscious refers to thoughts, feelings, wishes, memories, desires that are beneath surface of conscious awareness and thus we are not aware of having them As a Dr. he was presented with symptoms that could not be explained medically. So he came up with the idea that symptoms that their problems were psychological and must stem from unconscious minds b/c they are unaware that they are psychological. Freud believed that the unconscious mind held denied wishes and repressed memories that were influencing his patients' behaviors in a disguised way. The patient needed to delve in and become aware of their unconscious problems and this would solve the problem. Solve through awareness. ================================================== Question: How did Freud attempt to access the unconscious mind? Answer: Two methods he used to get in unconscious mind were free association (having person say whatever pops into person's mind no matter how trivial or stupid it seems—once they became comfortable with this, the unconscious mind would slip out and show through in the association) and dream analysis (believed dreams were the royal road to the unconscious. Supposedly highly symbolic representations of the unconscious mind. ================================================== Question: What are the structures of personality according to the psychoanalytic view? What are their characteristics? How do these relate to the iceberg analogy used by Freud? Answer: Freud believed there were 3 components of personality 1. Id: born with this, contains basic instincts, unconscious • Pleasure principle (urges one to do whatever feels good) • Immediate gratification—no regard for rules—says I want it and I want it now (like devil) 2. Ego: develops later in life to satisfy id in more socially acceptable ways • Reality principle: takes into account the restraints of reality • Delays gratification of id • Mediator between id and superego (listening to both) 3. Superego: develops between 4 and 5 yo as a kid internalizes values of its parents in society • Services one conscience • Operates according to morality principle—urges you to do what is right, ideal, and moral • Demands perfection (must do it perfectly—responsible for feelings of guilt or pride Iceberg analogy: most of iceberg is beneath surface—believed mind was similar, majority of the mind was unconscious or beneath the surface ================================================== Question: What are defense mechanisms (in general)? What is repression? Answer: With all this turmoil in the unconscious creates anxiety and Freud believe we used defense mechanisms that are unconscious psychological and behavioral tactics that hide/distort reality and protect a person from unpleasant emotions. Freud believed the mother of all defense mechanisms was repression: pushing unpleasant thoughts out of conscious awareness ================================================== Question: What are Freud's psychosexual stages of development and what happens during each? What are erogenous zones? What is fixation? What are the supposed characteristics of oral and anal fixation? What are the Oedipus and Electra complexes? Answer: Believed personality developed in childhood as one goes through psycho-sexual stage. In each stage, the id focuses on a certain erogenous zone (pleasure-sensitive area of body) Conflict between satisfying urges and rules of society in each stage. If conflict is not resolved successfully, that can lead to fixation Fixation is an enduring focus on a particular erogenous zone that reveals itself as maladaptive behavior in adult personality. Oral stage: birth-18 months—erogenous zone is the mouth, infants obtain pleasure and satisfaction from sucking, biting and chewing. However, conflict comes when society wants weaning, but id doesn't want that. Oral fixation could be nail biting, chewing on things (this came from what Freud thinks is being weaned too early—constantly trying to satisfy oral urges—using biting sarcasm, eating a lot, etc. Anal stage: 1.5-3 years—erogenous zone is the anus, Freud believed that toddlers obtained pleasure and satisfaction from expelling and attaining feces. The big conflict is when society demands toilet training. The id was no part of this, this id goes whenever it wants. When we describe someone as anal we consider them (fastidious, hyper-retentive, focused)—they would show these as adults if toilet trained too early and have an anal-retentive personality Phallic stage: 3-6 years—erogenous zone is the genitals (penis and clitoris) Boys go through an Oedipus complex—child has unconscious sexual desire for their mom, would like to have mom all to themselves, but dad is in the way. However, boy notices that girls don't have penises and thinks penis was cut off, so if he tries to compete with father, his penis will be cut off, so boy tries to be like dad and identify with him. Mom likes dad so if boy acts like dad, then mom will like him. Electra complex: at first little girl sexually desires mom, but realizes she does not have a penis, so she develops penis envy and wishes she had a penis and wonders what happens to hers. She comes to the conclusions that her mom cut her penis off so since her mom is evil and mean she wants her father but is afraid of losing her mother's love so she represses her resentment of mom and identifies with mom trying to be like her and substitutes desire for a penis for a baby. Latency period: 6-adolescent—nothing happens no erogenous zone Genital stage: puberty-throughout life—erogenous zone is penis for males and vagina; if everything went well earlier you transfer previous desire for mom and dad to a more socially acceptable figure. ================================================== Question: According to Alfred Adler, why do we struggle for superiority and power? P. 519 Answer: Adler (who had proposed the still-popular idea of the inferiority complex) himself struggled to overcome childhood illnesses and accidents, and he believed that much of our behavior is driven by efforts to conquer childhood inferiority feelings that trigger our strivings for superiority and power. ================================================== Question: Who is associated with the idea of a collective unconscious? P. 519 Answer: Carl Jung ================================================== Question: What is the modern version of the psychoanalytic approach? Answer: Modern offshoot of Psychoanalytic theory is psychodynamic, which focuses more on inner conflicts, social relationships, and interplay between conscious and unconscious mind. ================================================== Question: What are projective personality tests? What are the problems with them? Answer: Projective personality tests involved having a person interpret or respond to ambiguous stimuli. It is believed that the person will project their unconscious mind in response to these ambiguous stimuli. Ex: Thematic Apperception Test—individual is shown several pictures of people in ambiguous situations. The respondent is asked to tell a story about what's happening in the set of pictures. Rorschach Inkblot test—throw paint on a paper and fold it in half and have a person interpret it. Present problems b/c there is no universally agreed upon system for interpreting a person's answers. One therapists interpretation can be different from another. Subjective interpretation. Not very reliable or valid. ================================================== Question: What are the major problems with Freud's Psychoanalytic Theory? Answer: • Unscientific: not testable • After-the-fact explanations: Freud just made anything fit into the theory • Not supported by research: people who are weaned early do not have particular personalities, and people who were potty trained earlier were not anal-retentive in adulthood Showed that we are influenced by unconscious mind, but not like Freud believed. ================================================== Question: What is the false consensus effect? p. 522 Answer: the tendency to overestimate the extent to which others share our beliefs and behaviors ================================================== Question: What is the main premise of the humanistic approach? What does Rogers' Person-Centered Perspective indicate? What factors promote or inhibit growth according to this perspective? Answer: • Very positive and optimistic when it comes to humanity • Sees people as basically good rather than evil • We are guided by an innate drive to fulfill our potential (reaching one's full potential is known as self-actualization • Roger's Person Centered Theory: o quality of personal relationships. Whether we can grow and reach our full potential rely on quality of personal relationships o Requirements for these relationships are genuineness (being open with one's own true feelings), empathy (feeling what others feel), and acceptance (positively regarded by others)— this supports our personal growth o Unconditional positive regard—pure genuine love with no strings attached, feeling accepted by love ones even though they know our faults o Conditional positive regard— feeling that people in our lives will reject us if we don't conform to our standards or meet our expectiations. o According to Roger's our progress toward fulfilling our potential will be thwarted if we can't behave in a self-consistent way (ex: if you are gay and pretend you are straight to please others) • Criticized for too much focus on the self or being too positive when it comes to humanity. It's very vague and thus is difficult to research. ================================================== Question: What is the trait approach? What is the purpose of factor analysis? Answer: • Personality is seen as a combination of traits with people varying on how much of particular traits they possess o Traits—specific, stable, internal characteristics. • Trait theories differ in what fundamental dimensions/traits make up a personality o Researchers come up with personality questionnaires and give these to large numbers of people o Then perform a factor analysis on the results—mathematical procedure that ID's statistically correlated clusters of test items • Finds patterns in the data that represent some basic trait ================================================== Question: What are the dimensions of personality in Eysenck's trait theory? How did the Eysencks believe that these trait dimensions were biologically influenced? How do introverts and extraverts tend to differ? Answer: • Introversion/extraversion are one dimension of this theory o Highly introverted=solitary and reserved o Extraversion=sociable and outgoing • Emotional Stability/instability o Stable=calm and relaxed o Unstable=stable and anxious • Believed these were genetically influenced and based on how reactive one's nervous system is as well as one's baseline level of arousal in the nervous system (how activated the brain is when nothing much is happening) • Extraverts inherit low baseline levels of arousal which is why they seek out more stimulation and excitement to bring that arousal level up; more sensitive to reward and less sensitive to punishment. Less sensitive to pain than introverts. Experience more positive emotions. Wear more decorative clothing • Introverts inherit high baseline levels of arousal so don't need to really seek out stimulation/excitement. Introverts are more reactive to stimuli than extraverts; less sensitive to reward, more sensitive to punishment. Have more neutral emotions whereas extraverts have more positive emotions. More likely to wear comfortable clothes over style. • Introverts are more reactive to stimuli and thus salivate more to lemon juice on the tongue. ================================================== Question: What is Gray's Biopsychological Theory? What is the behavioral approach system and behavioral inhibition system? Answer: Gray's Biopsychological Trait Theory • Personality comes from two related systems: o Behavioral approach system (BAS) • Affects our sensitivity to reward and our desire to seek out reward—more sensitive to rewards if you have a more active nervous system. People with very active nervous systems have more positive outlook but are more vulnerable to impulsivity. So attracted to award so they don't think about consequences as much. o Behaviroal Inhibition system (BIS) • Sensitivty to punishment—people with more active BIS seek hard to avoid punishment. Have more negative emotions and more vulnerable to anxiety. • ** people with active BAS behave with what they want to happen, with active BIS behave in ways thinking of what they don't want to happen. o These are supposed to be two independent dimensions so you can be high on both or low on both too. ================================================== Question: What traits make up the Big Five Model of personality? Answer: • 1. Conscientiousness • 2. Agreeableness • 3. Neuroticism (emotional stability vs. instability) • 4. Openness • 5. Extraversion Widely researched/most widely accepted theory (CANOE) ================================================== Question: What is the NEO-PI-R? The MMPI? Answer: Trait theory has led to objective personality tests. There are objective scoring methods that allow you to score tests Typically these tests are Personality Inventory Tests that measure several traits at once: Ex: (Neuroticism Extraversion Openness Personality Inventory Revised—NEO-PI-R measures big 5, predicts career success, criminal behavior etc. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventoryassesses big 5 plus all personality traits and diagnoses psychological disorders. ================================================== Question: What is the social-cognitive approach? Answer: The Social cognitive Approach: Recognizes the interaction between personality, thinking, behavior, and the situation. ================================================== Question: What is Bandura's concept of reciprocal determinism? Answer: • Reciprocal influence between personality and environment • Our environments have an impact on how we think and how our personalities develop. • However, it's also true that our personalities impact the environment. What environments you put yourself in. What activities you choose to engage in and who you choose to hang out with. • Personalities have an impact on how we react to events which influences the situation and that reaction is influenced by personality. • We are both products and producers of our environments ================================================== Question: Can will-power/self-control be depleted? P. 538 Answer: Self-control temporarily weakens after an exertion, replenishes with rest, and becomes stronger with exercise. Exceeding willpower temporarily deplete the mental energy needed for self-control on other tasks, and even deplete the blood sugar and neural activity associated with mental focus. ================================================== Question: What is Rotter's expectancy theory (of personal control)? What is meant by internal and external locus of control? What is learned helplessness and how does it relate to the concept of personal control? Answer: • We behave according to what we expect to happen as a result of our behavior • What we expect to happen as a result of our own behavior depends on a lot on our feelings of personal control. • When it comes to personal control there are two types: o Internal locus (place) of control: feels that their own behaviors have a huge impact on what happens to them. They have an expectation that their own efforts control events. Have a sense of control of their own lives, which is a good thing. Associated with achievement, health, independence, and well-being. o External locus of control: lack a sense of control over their own lives. Feel that their behaviors have very little impact on what happens. Tend to believe that what happens to them is more a matter of luck or fate. Expect external forces to control them. Associated with depression and learned helplessness (tendency to give up on one's own effort to control the environment after previous efforts had no impact—stop trying when we learn our actions have no affect on our events—thus we fail when we could maybe succeed. It's a learned hopelessness). Common for individuals who have had repeated traumatic experiences over which they have no control. Experiencing helplessness leads us to be helplessness in the future. Classic experience done where dogs were placed into a chamber and subjected to electric shock. For half of the dogs, there was a lever in the box. If they hit the lever, the shock would stop. For other half of dogs, the lever did not stop the shock. Second part of experiment, dog placed into shuttle box. One side of box was wired to shock, other wasn't. For the dogs that previously had a lever would jump around and tried different things to get it to stop. The dogs that had no control just did nothing and didn't try to escape the shock. Learned helplessness has been found in a variety of animals such as slugs and cockroaches. ================================================== Question: What is the relationship between control over one's environment, stress, health, and morale? P. 539 Answer: People given little control over their world in prisons, factories, colleges, and nursing homes experience lower morale and increased stress. Measures that increase control-- allowing prisoners to move chairs and control room and lights and the TV, having workers participate in decision making, offering nursing home patients choices about their environment. ================================================== Question: Is having lots of choices generally better than having fewer choices? P. 539 Answer: Some freedom and control is better than none, but ever-increasing choice does not breed happier lives. Excess of freedom in today's western cultures contributes to decreasing life satisfaction, increased depression, and sometimes decisional paralysis. Tyranny of choice brings information overload and a greater likelihood that we will feel regret over some of the unchosen options. ================================================== Question: What is the spotlight effect? p. 545 Answer: overestimating other's' noticing and evaluating our appearance, performance, and blunders (as if we presume a spotlight shines on us) ================================================== Question: What is the relationship between self-esteem and aggressive behavior? What is defensive self-esteem? Answer: • Refers to our feelings of self-worth • Bad to have too much or too little. People with high self-esteem tend to be happier, less shy, less lonely • Self-esteem is also related to talkativeness (higher self-esteem=more talkativeness—think they are more interesting) • No relationship between self-esteem and GPA, but there is a relationship between self-esteem and violence/aggression (higher self-esteem=more likely aggressive/violent). People with unrealistic high self-esteem tend to become aggressive when their self-esteem is threatened or challenged by someone they see as inferior. • Distinction between defensive and secure self-esteem. Defensive is fragile, insecure, and threatened in nature. Particularly likely to become aggressive when challenged. However, with secure, it doesn't matter what other people think. Their self-esteem is secure and not easily rattled. Less likely to become aggressive. • ================================================== Question: What is the self-serving bias? What is the better-than-average or above-average effect? Answer: Self-serving bias: we have a a tendency think highly of ourselves. This is how we explain our successes and failures. When something good happens, we have a tendency to take credit, but when something bad happens we have a tendency to blame circumstances. Ex: we think of ourselves as being more attractive than we actually are. Researchers took a picture of each of their subjects and made a more attractive version and less attractive version. They were asked to pick themselves out of a line up and they were more quickly to pick up the more attractive version ourselves. Better-than-average effect: we have a tendency to think we are above average. Think we are superior to our peers. This extends to things linked with us (like thinking your dog is smarter than others' dogs) We see ourselves as better than our friends, but we see our friends as better than others. Picking on your sibling is alright, but other people can't because we are better than our siblings and our siblings are better than other. ================================================== Question: How does depression relate to the self-serving bias and realism? Answer: Humans function best with self-serving bias. Lack of self-serving bias is linked to depression. Many studies suggest that people with depression actually judge themselves and the world more realistically than everyone else. Non-depressed subjects rate themselves more favorably than the observers. Depressed subjects were more close to observers. ================================================== Question: What is psychopathology? What is abnormal psychology? Answer: Psychopathology: deals a lot with psychological disorder (abnormal psychology) Distinguishing between mental health emotion, and mental illness is difficult. Not a clear line. ================================================== Question: How is psychological disorder defined? Answer: Current definition: Ongoing patterns of thought, emotion, and behavior that impair functioning, deviate from the norm, cause distress, disrupt lives. If someone is super depressed about something that is reasonable to be depressed about (such as divorce or ill child), should they be labeled as mentally ill? ================================================== Question: How common are psychological disorders? When do they typically appear? Answer: Lifetime prevalence for psychological disorders in the US is about 50%. About 40% of adults will experience psychological disorder. Most people that get a disorder will show some symptoms by age 24. ================================================== Question: How does the biopsychosocial model explain psychological disorder? Answer: Biopsychosocial approach shows that psychological disorders result from a mixture of biological, psychological, and social factors. • Biological factors: genes, physical abuse, drug abuse, disease • Psychological factors: anxiety, how you interpret what happens to you, how you think about yourself (self-esteem) • Sociocultural/environmental context: stress, poverty (people in poverty are more likely to suffer from a disorder—more stresses or there's evidence that psychological disorders cause poverty); disorders can take somewhat different forms in different ================================================== Question: How are psychological disorders related to poverty? Answer: poverty (people in poverty are more likely to suffer from a disorder—more stresses or there's evidence that psychological disorders cause poverty ================================================== Question: How does culture influence psychological disorders? What are culture-general and cultural (culture-specific/culture-bound) disorders? Answer: For example in China, depression manifests more as physical symptoms than in US. Most likely because mental problems have been highly stigmatized. Symtpoms influenced by culture. Some disorders are culture-general (show up in every culture) ex: depression, schizophrenia (symptoms may vary but it's clear it's the same disorder) Cultural disorders: culture-specific or culture-bound disorders (anorexia, bulimia) Ex: Co-Ro (mostly in Asian cultures—fear that penis will shoot up into abdomen and kill them) Differences in how cultures experience distress ================================================== Question: How does the diathesis-stress model explain psychological disorders? Answer: Diathesis-stress model: whether you get a psychological disorder or not depends upon your degree of predisposition (genetic factors, prenatal events, early-life experiences) and the amount of stress you experience If you have a high predisposition it will take little stress to trigger a disorder. If you have a low predisposition it will take high stress to trigger a disorder ================================================== Question: What is the DSM-V? Answer: Diagnostic and Statistical manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5). Consistency in criteria of disorders Based on rigorous research ================================================== Question: In what ways can applying a diagnostic label to someone be stigmatizing? Answer: Problem—applying a diagnostic label to someone can be stigmatizing. If someone is labeled as mentally ill, it changes the way people perceive and interpret their behaviors, so even normal behaviors may be seen as evidence of their disorders. ================================================== Question: What are anxiety disorders? What are the anxiety disorders we covered? Know major symptoms, definitions of terms associated with the disorders, how the disorders differ from each other. Answer: Anxiety Disorders: Psychological and physical symptoms: fear, nervousness, dread psychological Physically they will often show signs of sympathetic nervous system arousal (sweatiness, fast heart beat, trembling) Everyone experiences anxiety but when it is excessive, long-lasting, or disruptive then it would be considered a disorder ================================================== Question: Generalized Anxiety Disorder Answer: Generalized Anxiety Disordder Excessive, long lasting, free-floating (occurring for no particular reason), anxiety They show dread, distractibility, irritability, tense, worry, hypervigilant (constantly monitoring surroundings for threat), insomnia, exaggerated startle (overreacting when startled), nausea, dizziness ================================================== Question: Panic disorder Answer: Panic Disorder Recurrent unpredictable panic attacks. Panic attacks are sudden episodes of intense anxiety. Very brief but absolutely terrifying. Panic attacks can be confused with heart attacks, feel like they might die. People who experience these panic attacks can lead to fear of experiencing them which can lead to agoraphobia (fear or avoidance of situations in which escape may be difficult or in which help might not be available) ex: on a bus or subway, or in severe cases people may stay in home. ================================================== Question: Specific phobia Answer: Specific phobia: excessive, strong, irrational fear of particular situations or things. The fear is disproportionate to the threat actually posed by the object. They typically know their fear is irrational but can't help it. ================================================== Question: Social Anxiety Disorder :( Answer: Social anxiety disorder: fear of other people's judgments, fear they will act in a way that will embarrass themselves, so they often avoid social situations. ================================================== Question: What are some biological and psychological factors involved in anxiety disorders? Answer: Biological Factors: People who have anxiety disorders have more reactive and sensitive brains and autonomic nervous systems. Genetic predisposition Psychological: Neuroticism, attentional bias (more likely to remember and notice possibly threatening stimuli) More likely to interpret ambiguous situations as threatening Low self-efficacy: don't feel they will be able to cope Various learning processes affected, various phobias can result from classical conditioning or observational learning Negative/stressful events are social factors that can worsen or bring on anxiety disorders ================================================== Question: What is posttraumatic stress disorder? Who tends to get it? Answer: Flashbacks, nightmares, haunting memories, jumpy, cranky, withdrawn, insomnia Common among veterans/sexual assault victims; happens with horrific/uncontrollable events Vulnerability to stress—more reactive nervous systems ================================================== Question: What is obsessive-compulsive disorder? What are obsessions and compulsions? Answer: Experiences persistent, upsetting thoughts that produce the urge to engage in repetitive ritualistic behaviors. Obsessions lead to uncontrollable thoughts, doubts, images, and impulses that just pop into your mind. These typically create anxiety that fuels compulsions. Compulsion is the repetitive behaviors, urge to engage in these. The compulsions temporarily relieve the person from the anxiety that arises (includes washing, counting, checking, arranging, and repeating) Compulsions are very time-consuming and can take away from the person's life. OCD tends to run in families. Genetic component. Link to serotonin and glutamate. Neurotransmitter abnormalities. Abnormalities in certain parts of the brain. ================================================== Question: What is major depressive disorder? What are the symptoms and features? Answer: Psychological Symptoms Sadness, guilt, low self-esteem, pessimism, crying, anhedonia (can't experience pleasure form usually enjoyable activities), anxiety, poor concentration, isolation Physical symptoms Change in eating and sleeping, pain, low energy, weakened immune system For at least 2 weeks Recurrent episodes a mental disorder characterized by a pervasive and persistent low mood that is accompanied by low self-esteem and by a loss of interest or pleasure in normally enjoyable activities. ================================================== Question: What are some of the biological, psychological, and social factors involved in depression? Answer: Biological factors: Genetic predisposition—can run in family Neurotransmitters affected include serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine Drugs that treat it are usually agonists of one or more of these neurotransmitters Smoking can increase activity with these neurotransmitters Can have an increased stress response—body reacts more to stress/releases more stress hormones compares to others. Psychological and social factors: Learned helplessness and external locus of control (lack sense of control over their lives) More intense reaction to negative events and less intense reaction to positive events Greater tendency to be a perfectionist. You'll never be perfect so you will constantly be disappointed/never satisfied. Negative explanatory style: meaning they jump to overly generalized, pessimistic, self-blaming conclusions. Explain events in a negative way. (ex: depression sufferers will think after a break-up that they will never have another relationship) Stressful circumstances contribute. ================================================== Question: What is bipolar disorder? What are the symptoms of mania? Answer: Also known as manic depression They show extremes of mood that are unrelated to circumstances or events in their lives. One extreme resembles major depression. The other extreme is called mania. Mania: a very agitated emotional state (almost the opposite of depression) • Emotionally: euphoric, irritable b/c they are inpatient with other people. • Cognition: Individual displays total optimism and thinks nothing can go wrong. Grandiose (over the top—make grand gestures, believe they are capable of great things). Impaired judgment b/c of ideas that are unrealistic, very easily distracted. • Behavior: hyperactivity—unlimited energy, decreased need for sleep (insomnia), talkative (pressured speech where there seems to be a lot of force behind their words), may exhibit silliness, engage in reckless behaviors b/c they feel invincible May alternate between periods of mania and depression, but often have periods of normalcy. Typically shows up in the 20s; strong genetic predisposition for it. Runs in families. Also associated with creativity. Abnormalities in prefrontal cortex; too much norepinephrine. ================================================== Question: What is schizophrenia? What are the symptoms? Know definitions and characteristics of the symptoms we covered. For instance, what are hallucinations and delusions? What are the most common types of hallucinations in schizophrenia? What are the different types of delusions we covered? What are loose associations? What is flat affect? Answer: Severely disordered and irrational thoughts and ideas Distorted perceptions Inappropriate emotions and behaviors Psychosis: loss of contact with reality Do not have multiple personalities Schizophrenia (split mind—split with reality) Found in all cultures—one of the most disabling of psychological disorders. Quite common for people with schizophrenia to not realize they are ill and thus it is hard to get them treatment. Major symptoms of Schizophrenia: (person with schizophrenia will not typically have all of these) • Hallucinations: perception without sensory input (see things, smell, taste things, but auditory hallucinations are the most common—come in the form of voices, may give them orders, provide commentary on actions, insult or laugh at them) • Delusions: a belief that is firmly held despite a lack of objective supporting evidence; persecution (believes that others are plotting against them), grandeur (believes they are much greater than they actually are—may believe they are divine or have super powers, world leaders are trying to contact them for advice), reference (unrelated events are personally relevant). Can lead to bizarre behaviors. • Attentional problems: easily distracted; filtering (difficulty filtering out extraneous/unimportant stimuli) so attention isn't as selective as others. • Disorganized thinking and speech: thoughts and speech jump around; exhibit loose associations—jumping from topic to topic. Thoughts are only loosely connected. • Emotional disturbances: inappropriate emotions (laughing at something sad); flat affect (absence of emotion—speaking in monotone voice, no change in facial expression); • Social withdraw—delusions of persecution/paranoia—believe others are out to get them; trouble relating to most people—living in a different reality • Motor disturbance/Catatonia: Catatonic stupor: rigid immobility for hours on end; waxy flexibility: put them in a position and stay until muscle gets tired and it drops. Repetitive compulsive behaviors that seem to have no purpose (rock back and forth or clap) ================================================== Question: What are the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and why is this distinction important? Answer: Positive (presence—not good) symptoms of schizophrenia: presence of inappropriate behaviors. Additions of abnormality. (extra cards that shouldn't be in the deck). Hallucinations, delusions, inappropriate emotion, repetitive compulsive behaviors. Negative symptoms: absence of normal behavior. Behavioral deficits. Not showing the normal amount of behavior. (missing cards that should be there). Flat affect (showing less than the normal amount of emotion), social withdraw, lack of goal-directed behavior, lack of purposeful movement These are important b/c someone who has primarily positive symptoms is more likely to respond to medicine and get better. Someone with negative symptoms is less likely to get better. ================================================== Question: When does schizophrenia develop? What factors predict outcome? Answer: Schizophrenia typically develops in the 20s or late teens. It may develop suddenly or may come on more gradually. If it comes on suddenly and seems to be a response to stress, the person is more likely to recover. However, if it comes on more gradually, the person is less likely to get better. May be episodic or chronic. May have one episode and never have it again or repeated episodes with periods of relative normalcy. Or chronic in which it's always there. Most common course is repeated episodes. Very difficult to treat and most do not realize they are ill, so it's hard to get them to get treatment and they will often stop taking medicine. ================================================== Question: What are some biological factors associated with schizophrenia as covered in class? Answer: Biological factors: genetic predisposition—if relative has it, then you are more likely; if identical twin has it, 50% chance other will have it. Genes influence how vulnerable you are to getting it. Kids who are adopted and raised by someone with schizophrenia does not influence if kid will get it. So thus it is not something learned. Schizo linked to over activity of dopamine in certain parts of the brain. Most of the drugs that treat it block certain dopamine receptors. Typically only help with positive symptoms. Negative symptoms due more to a deficit in glutamate. Also associated with various abnormalities in structure/function of brain One of the most consistent abnormalities is an enlargement in the cerebro-ventricles. More fluid so less space for brain tissue. Neurodevelopmental events: Low birth weight for gestational age or at greater risk for schizophrenia. Oxygen deprivation during birth show greater likelihood for getting schizo later Older biological father linked. Prenatal viral infection (flu-like experienced by mother during mid-pregnancy-2nd trimester) may be linked to schizo. Psychological and sociocultural factors don't seem to play an enormous role in schizo. Stress however can precipitate the disorder or make it worse. Various cultural factors also have impact on course of schizo. How much social support you have is a factor in severity. ================================================== Question: What characterizes personality disorders? Answer: Disruptive, long-standing, inflexible, dysfunctional behavioral patterns and thoughts that impair social functioning ================================================== Question: What is antisocial personality disorder? Answer: Psychopaths, sociopaths Does not refer to someone who would like to be alone Rather antisocial in this case refers to someone who shows a pervasive pattern in disregard for the violation of rights of others. Going against the rules/standards of society. To be diagnosed you must exhibit a lack of conscience by the age of 15. As an adult, people with ASPD they tend to be irresponsible, impulsive, callous (don't care about others' feelings) manipulative, arrogant, deceitful, problems holding jobs or keeping relationships, lie if it benefits them, relative lack of fear, anxiety, remorse, and guilt. Less sensitive to punishment than other people are. Threat of punishment does not really deter them. May be charming, intelligent and when they have those characteristics they can be excellent con artists. ================================================== Question: What are the psychological, behavioral, and biological features of this disorder? What are some biological and social factors that may contribute to this disorder? Answer: Biological Factors: Kids who have biological parents with the disorder and are adopted are at a greater risked, and also kids who are raised by an unrelated parent with the disorder are at a greater risk showing that it is somewhat learned. Minimal physiological arousal under stress (which is genetically influenced and possibly predisposes people to it)—why people can sometimes pass lie detectors Lower levels of stress hormones released. Brains don't react as much to stressful circumstances. Diminished physical response to distress. Psychosocial factors: Poverty Instability Abuse All increase risk for ASPD Difficult to treat b/c it's usually not a problem for themselves it's a problem to everyone else and if they do end up in therapy they will end up manipulating the theorists. ================================================== Question: What are the two main types of treatment for psychological disorders? Answer: Psychotherapy: process in which a trained therapist uses psychological techniques in order to improve the function or increase happiness of patient. Biomedical therapy: medication or medical procedures to treat, more serious biologically-based disorders. ================================================== Question: What is the eclectic approach? P. 652 Answer: an approach to psychotherapy that, depending on the client's problems, uses techniques from various forms of therapy. ================================================== Question: What was the first psychotherapy and who developed it? Answer: Psychoanalytic therapy Classical psychoanalysis: make person aware of repressed, unconscious conflicts and impulses. Developed by Freud. ================================================== Question: What is the aim of psychoanalysis? What is the main focus of psychodynamic therapy? Answer: Trying to get into patient's unconscious minds. Delving into unconscious to see what is causing problems. By making them aware of the unconscious conflicts that would make the problems go away. Free association (just talking), dreams Not very common today b/c it involved several visits a week for years. Psychodymanic therapy is the more contemporary variation: focus on social relationships (examining how past influences the present—helping a person understand why they think, act, and feel the way they do) ================================================== Question: What are the goals of Humanistic psychotherapy? What are the characteristics and methods of Rogers's Client-Centered Therapy? Answer: Goals: to enhance self-awareness and self-acceptance. Moving the barriers that are preventing a person from reaching their full potential. This type of therapy is for self-improvement and facilitating growth. Roger's Client-centered Therapy: Role of therapist is to sit back, listen, and provide support and companionship. Refrain from offering advice, judging, or interpreting b/c it's believed that client can solve own problems and if they help that will undermine their confidence. Provide their clients with genuineness, empathy, and acceptance. • Acceptance is demonstrated by providing the client with unconditional positive regard (therapist truly needs to feel this unconditional positive regard). • Empathy shown by active listening technique called reflection. Involves paraphrasing what the client just said. Supposed to make client feel heard and encourage the client to expand on what they are talking about ================================================== Question: What is the general focus and goal of behavior therapy? What is exposure with response prevention (flooding)? What is systematic desensitization? Answer: Behavior therapy: psychological problems are seen as learned behaviors. Goal: to use the principles of learning to extinguish undesirable behavior and teach more adaptive behavior. Some techinques: • Exposure with response prevention (flooding): helps people with fears. Goal is to expose client to whatever it is they fear and prevent them from escaping. Put in feared but harmless situation. Hardest thing about this is getting people to do this b/c it's difficult to get them to be fully exposed to things they fear. • Systematic desensitization: replace fear with relaxation (more gradual than flooding) client is gradually exposed to increasingly intense versions of feared stimulus while relaxing. Client is first taught relaxation techniques—practice on their own until they are good at inducing relaxation. Therapist and client create a fear/desensitization hierarchy (a list of increasingly intense versions of the feared stimulus). Shown first item on the list and if they experience anxiety then they induce relaxation and keep doing this until it doesn't bother them. • Helps with phobia/OCD and fears ================================================== Question: What is the main goal of the cognitive therapies? What are some techniques used in cognitive therapies? Answer: Therapists focus on the role that thinking plays in psychological disorders such as depression and various anxiety disorders. Goal: to replace maladaptive thinking with thoughts that are more constructive rather than destructive. Therapists points out how irrational some of the client's thinking is. (client says: "everybody hates me" therapist responds to combat this Self-statement modification: replacing negative mental statements with positive mental statements. Asked to write down positive events that happened each day and how that contributed to them. Gets them focusing more on positive things. ================================================== Question: What is electroconvulsive shock therapy? For what is it used today? Is it effective? What is the main side effect? Answer: Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT): electric current applied to scalp to cause convulsions. Used to be used for all kinds of things and used such high voltage that people could break bones or have cardiac arrest. Still used today but not nearly as brutal/used as much. First given sedative/muscle relaxer and not awake when shock is applied. Not as strong of a current. Used to treat severe depression/bipolar disorder when nothing else works. Very effective for depression that hasn't been treated by medicine. Not known why it work. Major side affect is memory loss. Have trouble remembering events that occurred in hours prior to shock. Sometimes further back memories. ================================================== Question: What is psychosurgery? What is prefrontal and transorbital lobotomy? What were the general effects of lobotomy? Answer: Psychosurgery: Removal/destruction of brain tissue—extremely rare today. More likely to involve implantation of electrodes into brain today. Prefrontal lobotomy: cut connections between frontal lobes (prefrontal cortex) and limbic areas Dr. Egas Moniz, Nobel prize winner, noticed that chimpanzees became calmer when part of brain was removed. Lobotomy caught on greatly for serious mental illness or just for being moody/difficult/problematic/defiant/headaches/backaches Very imprecise procedure. Variable results: lethargy, immaturity, impulsivity, loss of personality/creativity. Walter Freeman (a neurologist) came up with a stream-line version of lobotomy—transorbital lobotomy—shock patient into unconsciousness, pull eye-lid up, push eye aside, stick icepick in, twirl it around, and be done in 10 min. Personally did many, many surgeries. Today it is very sterile, head is held in place and they avoid as much damage as possible. Rosemary Kennedy was given a lobotomy at age 23. It was a disaster. ================================================== Question: What are neuroleptics/antipsychotics (Haldol, thorazine, Risperdal) used to treat? How do they affect dopamine? What is tardive dyskinesia? Answer: Antipsychotics/Neuroleptics: Drugs used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic states. Dopamine antagonists. More affective for positive sysmptoms rather than negative Older ("typical") drugs: Throazine, Haldol, Newer (atypical) drugs: Colzapine, Risperdal, Zyprexa Side effects: Tardive dyskinesia—irreversible syndrome of uncontrollable, repetitive movements. ================================================== Question: What are the general classes of antidepressants and which are most commonly prescribed today? What are SSRI's (Prozac, Zoloft)? Answer: Newer Antidepressenants are SSRI's, they are things like (neuron releases neurotransmitter and then reuptakes them) SSRI then stops the reuptake and keeps them in the synapse which allows them to continually bind to the receptors. Increase serotonin activity. Ex: Zoloft, Prozac, paxil. SSRI is most effective in treating severe depression or someone with a family history. Aren't as effective for mild depression. Anti depressants are n't just affective for depression but also for OCD and anxiety. They are agonists of serotonin (5-HT) and/or norepinephrine and/or dopamine (DA). MAO-I's aren't as prescribed any more because they have a lot of side effects that react with things ================================================== Question: How long does it generally take for antidepressants to become effective? Are antidepressants happy pills? Do they prevent sadness? Answer: Typically takes about 4-6 weeks to reach the full effectiveness. Antidepressants aren't happy pills. They don't make someone constantly happy. The person can still get sad, but they prevent deep long-lasting sadness. ================================================== Question: What are mood stabilizers (lithium) and what do they treat? Answer: Mood stabiliziers treat bipolar disorder. Lithium is the most common thing used to treat bipolar disorder. Treats both mania and depression, but better at treating mania. If lithium doesn't work. A combination of anticonvulsants plus antidepressants is used. ================================================== Question: What are anxiolytics used to treat? What are benzodiazepines (valium, Xanax)? How do they work (neurotransmitter)? Answer: Anxiolytics: drugs to treat anxiety Tranquilizers; drowsiness, relaxation Benzodiazepines (valium, Xanax, Librium, etc), GABA agonists, Addictive. Antidepressants (particularly SSRIs) can be good at treating anxiety too. ================================================== Question: What is social psychology? Answer: Social psychology: how we think about, influence, and relate to one another. Focuses on situational influences. ================================================== Question: What are attributions? Dispositional/internal attributions? Situational/external attributions? Answer: Social thinking: Involves explaining behavior whether it is our own or others'. Explaining behavior often involves making attributions (process of making inferences about the reason or causes of behavior/event) Two types of attributions we make when explaining behavior: • Disposition/internal attribution: we infer that their behavior is caused by their personality. Stable internal characteristic is causing them to behave the way they do. • Situational/external attribution: behavior is caused by the circumstances they are experiencing. ================================================== Question: What is the fundamental attribution error? What is the actor-observer bias? Answer: The fundamental attribution error: the tendency to overestimate dispositional factors and underestimate situational factors when judging the behavior of others. Judging the behavior of someone we don't know well... we tend to attribute their behavior more to their personality than their situation. (ex: bad waiter) (study in which people told woman is acting but attributed it to her personality regardless) Very common, and happens everywhere, but more prevalent in individualistic cultures. The actor-observer bias: we tend to make dispositional attributions for others' behaviors and situational attributions for our own (bad) behaviors. Combination of fundamental attribution error and self-serving bias. We are more aware of situational influences on our behavior (actor), but as the observer we're less aware of the situation. ================================================== Question: What are attitudes? How do attitudes relate to actions? Answer: Attitudes and Actions Attitudes: feelings that predispose our reactions. Attitudes have an impact on behavior, influence our daily actions. Attitudes affect actions, but actions also affect attitudes. We seek consistency between what we say think and do. When our attitudes/actions don't match we get cognitive dissonance ================================================== Question: What is cognitive dissonance? What is cognitive dissonance theory? What happened in the Festinger & Carlsmith study? Answer: Cognitive dissonance: tension when attitudes and actions don't match We want to change attitudes to match behavior to justify actions. If we can't justify, then according to this theory we will change our attitude to match the behavior. Festinger and Carlsmith (1959) Boring task, subject is asked to lie to another subject and tell them the study is really fun. Half is offered $1 to lie, the other half is offered $20. The subjects given $1 liked the study more than those paid $20. Those who are paid $20 could justify why they lied and thus experienced less cognitive dissonance. Those paid $1 did not have as much justification for the lie they told—thus they convinced themselves that the task was fun and interesting b/c of cognitive dissonance. Working hard to obtain a goal makes us value the goal even more. You convince yourself that a harder-to-get A is more valuable. Also explains hazing (if you are hazed then you value being in the group more). Doing can result in believing. ================================================== Question: What happened in the Zimbardo prison study (aka Stanford prison experiment)? What is the main lesson of this study? Answer: Role Absorption Zimbardo Prison Study (Stanford Prison Experiment) 1971—college males were extensively tested and chosen to take part in the study Prison set up, and randomly, half of them were guards and half were prisoners. Things got so bad that the study was canceled after 2 weeks. The subjects forgot that they weren't actually guards or prisoners. Illustrates how easily we can lose ourselves ina role. Situations exert powerful influences on behavior. Some situations are so strong that they can affect the personalities of the people. Situational pressures/social pressures can keep people in bad situations. We think we would react differently but you must remember that whenw e are the observer we aren't aware of the full situation. ================================================== Question: What is conformity? Answer: Conformity: changing belief or behavior to match other people due to unspoken group pressure. ================================================== Question: Compliance? Answer: Compliance (step up from conformity): going along with a request from someone who is not an authority figure. ================================================== Question: Obedience? Answer: Obedience: giving in to explicit demand from authority ================================================== Question: What happened in the Asch conformity experiments? Answer: Classic experiements done by Solomon Asch (Asch Conformity Experiemnts) in 1960s. People give obvious wrong answer, when others give that answer. Which line is the same length? ================================================== Question: What are social norms? Answer: Social norms: learned rules of a culture about what to do in particular situations. We conform because we want to be accepted, not be the weird one. ================================================== Question: What is the foot-in-the-door technique? The door-in-the-face technique? Answer: • Indirect mehtods: o Foot-in-the-door technique: asking someone a small request that they will agree too and then asking a larger request after b/c the person will be more likely to agree. (If you say you want to help disabled kid and then not actually buy a toy, that will create cognitive dissonance b/c we don't like inconsistencies in our actions/thoughts/words). o Door-in-the-face technique: (opposite) start with a large unreasonable request that is unlikely to be denied, then follow up with a smaller request. People will be more likely to follow up with smaller request b/c it doesn't seem like so much in comparison to the first major request. ================================================== Question: What happened in Milgram's obedience studies? Answer: Milgram's obedience studies: • Subject: teacher • Confederate: learner (confederate means they are in on the study) • Teacher is instructed to read lists of words to learner and then tests the learner. Whenever the learner gives the wrong answer, they are shocked. Learner is strapped into chair that gives electric shock and then teacher is taken into separate room. When learner makes a mistake over intercom, teacher shocks them and shock increases each time by 15. Things are good at first but at around 75 volts, the learner starts to react. By 150 volts, the person is yelling and says they wants to quit the study. In actuality, no one was actually shocked. Researcher urges you to continue. Around 330 volts, the learner stops responding and the researcher tells you to treat no answer as a wrong answer. ================================================== Question: What were the results of Milgram's study? Answer: People surveyed thought that the teacher would stop when the person first experienced pain. However, 65% (2/3) of people went all the way to 450 volts. • Study is not ethical by today's standards. • He told subjects immediately afterwards that you didn't actually shock someone. Those were emotionally distressed were sent to a psychiatrists and no one seemed to really be permanently screwed up. No one said they regretted doing the study. Subjects today go to 150 volts at a similar percent as they did in Milgram's. Rates of obedience today are pretty similar to what it was in 1960s. • Foot-in-the-door effect is at work—when the change is gradual we don't realize the extent. • Historical examples: you don't have to look far for examples. Nazi Germany (regular people built camps). Americans slaughtered innocent people in Vietnam War. ================================================== Question: What was the main conclusion of Milgram's studies? Answer: "Ordinary people, simply doing their jobs, and without any particular hostility on their part, can become agents in a terrible destructive process" ================================================== Question: What is the chameleon effect? p. 560 Answer: We take on emotional tones of those around us. Just hearing someone reading a neutral text in either a happy or sad sounding voice creates mood contagion in listeners. We are natural mimics unconsciously imitating others' expressions, postures, and voice tones ================================================== Question: What is deindividuation? P. 568 Answer: the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity ================================================== Question: What is group polarization? P. 569-570 Answer: the enhancement of a group's prevailing inclinations through discussion within the group (if you are business savvy at a college b/c that college is business savvy in general your freshman year, you will probably become more business savvy by the time you graduate) ================================================== Question: What is groupthink? Under what conditions is groupthink most likely to occur? How can it be prevented? P. 570-571 Answer: groupthink: the mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives. Fed by overconfidence, conformity, self-justification, and group polarization. prevented when a leader welcomes various opinions, invites experts' critiques of developing plans, and assigns people to identify possible problems. ================================================== Question: What are stereotypes? What is prejudice? What is discrimination? Answer: Stereotypes: beliefs about entire groups of people, typically involve false assumptions that all members of a group share the same characteristics. Prejudice: involves attitude/judgement based only on group membership. Discrimination is the differential treatment of people due to group membership. ================================================== Question: How does prejudice maintain inequality? Answer: Unjusitifed negative (sometimes positive) evaluation of someone based only on group membership. Tends to bias how we interpret the behavior of others. Can affect us automatically and unconsciously. Sexism and racism are examples. Serves as a legitimizing ideologies (the purpose is to justify and maintain inequalities by suggesting that some people are less worthy or capable as others) ================================================== Question: What are overt attitudes? implicit attitudes? What do measures of implicit attitudes reveal? Answer: Prejudice can be: • Overt: what we consciously express/are consciously aware of having • Implicit: unconscious attitudes. • Overt/implicit attitudes do not always match. • When asked, most Americans say they are not prejudice, however, assessment of implicit attitudes shows that they are more prejudice than they realize or are willing to admit. • Implicit Association Test (IAT): reveals how closely connected particular concepts are in our minds by how quickly we can assosicate words and/or pictures. (positive/negative words with black/white faces—white americans are better at pairing negative words with black faces and positive with white showing that we are somewhat implicitly biased). • Our imiplicit attitudes reveal our unconscious, automatic influence (this can greatly affect our knee-jerk reactions)—to shoot or not to shoot, subjects are more likely to shoot a black person with a tool or gun versus a white man with a tool or gun. ================================================== Question: What are some of the roots of prejudice as discussed in class? (illusory correlations, confirmation bias, ingroup favoritism, learning, scapegoating, social inequalities, just-world phenomenon, hindsight bias, blaming the victim, lack of awareness) Answer: Roots of Prejudice • Tendency to categorize things and people in order to simplify the world. We put people in social categories based on ethnicity, gender, age etc. • Once we categorize we overestimate the similarities in that category unless it's a category we belong to. We tend to think bad behaviors are characteristic of the entire group (illusory correlation) behavior of one person associated with whole group. • Confirmation bias: tendency to seek out and pay more attention to info that confirms our beliefs. If we believe in stereotypes, we are more likely to notice events that support those stereotypes. • Ingroup favoritism: people evaluate members of their own group more favorably than those outside of their group. • Learning is also a factor; prejudice/stereotypes are learned. Even little kids can be familiar with societal attitudes. • White kids show a stronger positive bias toward white than black kids do for blacks. • Scapegoating refers to when frustrated people blame others as an outlet/when things go wrong. (ex: "They took our jobs!") • Existence of systematic social inequalities: some people on average start off with more and have an easier path to success than others. Those that have wealth tend to justify their own position in society as well as those who have little to none. • Example of this is the Just-world phenomenon: the world is a fair place—people typically get what they deserve. Thus, if something good happens to someone, they must of done something to deserve it, if something bad happens, they must have done something to deserve it. People often see position of the poor as justly deserved. (Wealthy people work hard, poor don't.) This can lead people to unfairly blame victims for their misfortunes—if they are sufferings it must be bc they are being punished. Another example, woman is watched receiving shocks and the subjects were asked to rate the woman on a variety of things and they tended to berate the woman instead of feel sympathy. This was more strongly pronounced in people who believed in a just-world. Thought the woman deserved this. • Hindsight bias: the tendency for outcomes to seem obvious once they have occurred. Tend to think that we would have foreseen the outcome of some events ahead of time. This can also lead to unfair blaming of victims (we will think they should have seen this coming or known this happened or we would have known better had we been in their situation). Ex: subjects asked to read detailed description of date, at end half subjects' story said the woman was raped, other half ended normally. The one's with rape ending identified things in the woman's behavior that led to the assault, but those without the ending saw nothing. ================================================== Question: Do those who enjoy privilege in a society tend to be aware of their privilege? Answer: • People who enjoy privilege in a society often fail to recognize the ways in which they benefit from their privilege status. It is taken for granted. People with privilege may deny that it exists and perceive others as whiny and demanding when they just want equal rights. People of color tend to be stopped by police a lot. ================================================== Question: What is the bystander effect? How does the case of Kitty Genovese relate to the bystander effect? What is diffusion of responsibility? Answer: The Bystander Effect: the presence of other people inhibits helping. The more bystanders there are, the less likely it is that any one of those bystanders will help. Research on bystander effect was jump started by murder of Kitty Genovese (1964)—bar manager returning to apartment and was attacked by random man and was screaming for help, she was just about in apartment and the guy returned and attacked her again. Some details are in dispute, but initial report is that about 30 neighbors heard or saw. Lights were flickering on in the apartments around. Police weren't called until 30 min later. More people who are around, the less responsible they feel. One way to deal is to point to a specific person and tell them to get help. Diffusion of responsibility: Diffusion of responsibility is a sociopsychological phenomenon whereby a person is less likely to take responsibility for action or inaction when others are present. ================================================== Question: What are some factors involved in helping? Answer: More likely to help someone if they clearly need help—sure they are having an emergency. If we know them If we believe they deserve our help If the person seems similar to us If we are not in a big hurry If we are in a good mood (feel-good, do-good: happy people are more helpful) Population density (more dense an area is populated—the less likely it is for ppl to help; this is cross-cultural) Cost and benefits ================================================== Question: What is the mere-exposure effect? Answer: Keys to attraction: physical proximity—geographic nearness (we tend to like/love/marry people we live near/work near/run into regularly) Part of this is because of mere-exposure effect—we prefer things that are familiar to us. Other things being equal—familiarity tends to breed liking. "bird of a feather flock together" more often than opposites attract. We more often like people who share our attitudes, beliefs, interests, opinions, habits, background, religion, race, education, intelligence, SES? ================================================== Question: How does love tend to change over the course of time (in terms of passionate and companionate love)? Answer: Passionate love: intense, sexual, emotional, but often temporary. Often compared to a lit match. If it lasts it can result in... Companionate love: deep, intimate, and steady love. ================================================== Question: What are social scripts and how might the scripts provided by the media influence sexual and/or aggressive behavior? P. 582 Answer: Social scripts: culturally modeled guide for how to act in various situations; After so many action films, youngsters may acquire a script that plays in their head when they face real-life conflicts. Challenged, they may "act like a man" by intimidating or eliminating the threat. Likewise, after viewing the multiple sexual innuendoes and acts found in most prime-time TV hours-- often involving impulsive or short-term relationships--youths may acquire sexual scripts they later enact in real-life relationships. Music lyrics also write social scripts. In one set of experiments, German university men administered hotter chili sauce to a woman and recalled more negative feelings and beliefs about women after listening to woman-hating song lyrics. Man-hating song lyrics had a similar effect on the aggressive behavior of women listeners. ================================================== Question: What do laboratory experiments indicate regarding the effects of exposure to pornography? P. 582-583 Answer: Watching porn can cause people to accept the rape myth-- the idea that some women invite or enjoy rape and get "swept away" while being "taken." Surveys indicate that more men watch porn. Most consumers of porn commit no known sexual crimes, but they are more likely to accept the rape myth as reality. People heavily exposed to porn see the world as more sexual. One's own partner seems less attractive. Extramarital sex seems less troubling. A woman's friendliness seems more sexual. Sexual aggression seems less serious. These effects feed the ingredients of coercion against women. ================================================== Question: What are mirror-image perceptions? P. 598 Answer: mutual views often held by conflicting people, as when each side sees itself as ethical and peaceful and views the other side as evil aggressive. ================================================== Question: What does the GRIT strategy entail? P. 601 Answer: GRIT: graduated and Reciprocated Initiatives in Tension-Reduction--a strategy designed to decrease international tensions. One side first announces its recognition of mutual interests and its intent to reduce tensions. It then initiates one or more conciliatory acts. Without weakening one's retaliatory capability, this modest beginning opens the door for reciprocity by the other party. Should the enemy respond with hostility, one reciprocates in kind. But so, too, with any conciliatory response. ==================================================

Residual Market Insurance Programs Are Funded By

Question: Which of the following BEST describes the insurance provided by residual market insurance programs?
Answer: Usually a "last resort" form of insurance
==================================================
Question: Residual market insurance programs are primarily designed to meet the needs of which type of consumer?
Answer: High-risk consumers
==================================================
Question: Participation in the Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association is mandatory for:
Answer: all insurers who can sell auto insurance in Florida.
==================================================
Question: Residual market insurance programs are funded by:
Answer: insurers and their policyholders.
==================================================
Question: Which of the following people would be ineligible for coverage under the Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association?
Answer: A college student from Alabama with two DUIs on his record who is staying with his grandmother in Florida for 2 months over the summer.
==================================================
Question: Which of the following provides basic property insurance for consumers who cannot secure coverage in the regular insurance market?
Answer: Citizens Property Insurance Corporation
==================================================
Question: A company that wishes to obtain Workers Compensation insurance through FWCJUA must prove that:
Answer: it has been denied coverage by at least two insurers in the voluntary market.
==================================================
Question: Citizens Insurance:
Answer: is available to certain people who are not residents of Florida.
==================================================

Answer: reward private insurers who take risks out of the residual market.
==================================================
Question: Which Florida Residual Market program provides high risk Workers' Compensation coverage for employers who cannot obtain it in the voluntary market?
Answer: Florida Workers' Compensation Joint Underwriting Association
==================================================
Question: A Florida company that is assigned to "Tier 2" for coverage under FWCJUA must pay:
Answer: rates that are 50% higher than voluntary market rates.
==================================================
Question: Which of the following is NOT true about Citizens Insurance?
Answer: Citizens does not insure any type of commercial property.
==================================================
Question: Which of the foll”Question: Which of the following BEST describes the insurance provided by residual market insurance programs? Answer: Usually a "last resort" form of insurance ================================================== Question: Residual market insurance programs are primarily designed to meet the needs of which type of consumer? Answer: High-risk consumers ================================================== Question: Participation in the Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association is mandatory for: Answer: all insurers who can sell auto insurance in Florida. ================================================== Question: Residual market insurance programs are funded by: Answer: insurers and their policyholders. ================================================== Question: Which of the following people would be ineligible for coverage under the Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association? Answer: A college student from Alabama with two DUIs on his record who is staying with his grandmother in Florida for 2 months over the summer. ================================================== Question: Which of the following provides basic property insurance for consumers who cannot secure coverage in the regular insurance market? Answer: Citizens Property Insurance Corporation ================================================== Question: A company that wishes to obtain Workers Compensation insurance through FWCJUA must prove that: Answer: it has been denied coverage by at least two insurers in the voluntary market. ================================================== Question: Citizens Insurance: Answer: is available to certain people who are not residents of Florida. ================================================== Question: "Take-out credits" Answer: reward private insurers who take risks out of the residual market. ================================================== Question: Which Florida Residual Market program provides high risk Workers' Compensation coverage for employers who cannot obtain it in the voluntary market? Answer: Florida Workers' Compensation Joint Underwriting Association ================================================== Question: A Florida company that is assigned to "Tier 2" for coverage under FWCJUA must pay: Answer: rates that are 50% higher than voluntary market rates. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is NOT true about Citizens Insurance? Answer: Citizens does not insure any type of commercial property. ==================================================

Reserving Segments Of Time In A Computerized Appointment Software

Question: Preoperative office appointments are typically set up by the

a. physician.
b. office manager.
c. hospital scheduling clerk.
d. medical assistant.
Answer: d. medical assistant.
==================================================
Question: To avoid an audit and improve scheduling,

a. make sure the telephone receptionist knows how much time to allow for appointments.
b. block off several urgent and emergent slots during the day.
c. notify the supervisor when an established patient with an urgent complaint cannot be given an appointment on the same day.
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
==================================================
Question: Reserving segments of time in a computerized appointment software program is referred to as a(n)

a. appointment block.
b. appointment tickler file.
c. software segment.
d. management system.
Answer: a. appointment block.
==================================================
Question: Convalescent hospital or nursing home calls are made

a. on a weekly basis.
b. typically every two weeks.
c. on a monthly basis.
d. by someone other than the PCP.
Answer: c. on a monthly basis.
==================================================
Question: More patients complain about

a. the temperature in the waiting room than about how long they must wait to see the doctor.
b. fees and insurance issues than about waiting time.
c. copayments and deductibles than any other issue.
d. how long they wait to see the doctor than about health care costs.
Answer: d. how long they wait to see the doctor than about health care costs.
==================================================
Question: Which type of scheduling works well for specialty and consulting practices because it allows the physician time to prepare for each office visit with the knowledge that the day will begin and end on schedule if patients adhere to their assigned times?

a. Stream scheduling
b. Triage scheduling
c. Double booking
d. Open hours scheduling
Answer: a. Stream scheduling
==================================================
Question: A printout showing all of the appointments scheduled for a given day is a(n)

a. appointment reference sheet.
b. personal organizer.
c. auditing sheet.
d. appointment reminder card.
Answer: a. appointment reference sheet.
==================================================
Question: If a patient cancels an appointment and does not set an alternative time, they should

a. not be allowed to reschedule.
b. be listed on a cancellation sheet for tracking purposes.
c. be listed on a cancellation sheet for possible discharge from the practice.
d. always be charged for the appointment.
Answer: b. be listed on a cancellation sheet for tracking purposes.
==================================================
Question: FUO is the abbreviation for

a. follow-up in office.
b. fever of unknown origin.
c. fracture of unknown origin.
d. frequent urinary output.
Answer: b. fever of unknown origin.
==================================================
Question: Appointment reminder cards

a. should always be mailed in an envelope.
b. can be postcards, letters, or notes.
c. are viewed as a bad public relation tool.
d. are forbidden by HIPAA.
Answer: a. should always be mailed in an envelope.
==================================================
Question: The abbreviation "Dx" stands for

a. did not keep appointment.
b. diagnosis.
c. dressing change.
d. discontinue.
Answer: b. diagnosis.
==================================================
Question: In which type of scheduling system are patients told that their appointments are on the hour and each is seen in the order in which they arrive?

a. True wave
b. Modified wave
c. Clustering
d. Single booking
Answer: a. True wave
==================================================
Question: Which type of scheduling works well when the staff knows how to get relevant information from the patient so a real emergency can be handled promptly?

a. Stream scheduling
b. Triage scheduling
c. Double booking
d. Fixed interval scheduling
Answer: b. Triage scheduling
==================================================
Question: All appointment no-shows should

a. be disregarded.
b. be discussed with the supervisor.
c. be documented in the patient's chart.
d. result in a refusal to schedule future appointments for the patient.
Answer: c. be documented in the patient's chart.
==================================================
Question: The national average of primary care visits per hour per physician is

a. two.
b. four.
c. six.
d. eight.
Answer: c. six.
==================================================
Question: PRN stands for

a. primary registered nurse.
b. pulmonary respiratory nebulizer.
c. as soon as possible.
d. as necessary
Answer: d. as necessary
==================================================
Question: The abbreviation "stat" stands for

a. immediately.
b. emergency.
c. statistically.
d. on call.
Answer: a. immediately.
==================================================
Question: The scheduling technique that allows patients to walk in during a specified time frame and be seen in the order they arrive is

a. stream scheduling.
b. triage scheduling.
c. double booking.
d. open hours.
Answer: d. open hours.
==================================================
Question: A hospitalist is a

a. nurse practitioner who works in the hospital.
b. physician assistant who takes over for the PCP when a patient is hospitalized.
c. physician who takes over for the PCP when a patient is hospitalized.
d. resident physician.
Answer: c. physician who takes over for the PCP when a patient is hospitalized.
==================================================
Question: When setting up preoperative appointments and tests for a patient,

a. schedule all tests and procedures as close together as possible.
b. remember that patients may find too many appointments in one day tiring.
c. schedule tests and procedures as far apart as possible.
d. only take into consideration the time frame during which the physician wants them done.
Answer: b. remember that patients may find too many appointments in one day tiring.
==================================================
Question: Patients referred by other physicians should

a. be scheduled within a four-week period.
b. be scheduled within a two-week period.
c. be seen as soon as possible.
d. not be given priority over other patients.
Answer: c. be seen as soon as possible.
==================================================
Question: The correct abbreviation(s) for physical examination is

a. PE.
b. PX.
c. Ph ex.
d. A and C only.
e. all of the above.
Answer: e. all of the above.
==================================================
Question: The correct abbreviation for anterior posterior is

a. AP.
b. A&P.
c. AP&L.
d. A/P.
e. A and B only.
f. A, B, and D only.
g. all of the above.
Answer: a. AP.
==================================================
Question: PFT is the abbreviation for

a. pulmonary function test.
b. premature fetal tones.
c. platelet function test.
d. perfusion function time.
Answer: a. pulmonary function test.
==================================================
Question: Which of the following is the best way for the medical assistant to handle a true emergency situation?

a. Diagnose the situation and prescribe treatment over the phone.
b. Refer the patient to a hospital emergency facility.
c. Schedule the patient to come in at the end of the workday when all other patients have been seen.
d. Refer the call to someone else.
Answer: b. Refer the patient to a hospital emergency facility.
==================================================
Question: How should pharmaceutical representatives' visits be handled?

a. Do not schedule appointments for reps as they tend to annoy the physician.
b. Schedule one day per month for reps.
c. Block one or two quiet periods in the middle of the week for reps.
d. Make sure to block a great deal of time because they often bring drug samples.
Answer: c. Block one or two quiet periods in the middle of the week for reps.
==================================================
Question: Which type of scheduling method allows patients to schedule appointments on the same day they call?

a. True wave
b. Open access
c. Clustered appointment
d. Modified wave
Answer: b. Open access
==================================================
Question: An in-office hospital surgery scheduling form is filled out by

a. the physician and the patient.
b. the physician, scheduler, and patient.
c. the patient and billing representative.
d. an admitting clerk and the physician.
Answer: b. the physician, scheduler, and patient.
==================================================
Question: Preoperative office appointments are typically set up by the a. physician. b. office manager. c. hospital scheduling clerk. d. medical assistant. Answer: d. medical assistant. ================================================== Question: To avoid an audit and improve scheduling, a. make sure the telephone receptionist knows how much time to allow for appointments. b. block off several urgent and emergent slots during the day. c. notify the supervisor when an established patient with an urgent complaint cannot be given an appointment on the same day. d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above ================================================== Question: Reserving segments of time in a computerized appointment software program is referred to as a(n) a. appointment block. b. appointment tickler file. c. software segment. d. management system. Answer: a. appointment block. ================================================== Question: Convalescent hospital or nursing home calls are made a. on a weekly basis. b. typically every two weeks. c. on a monthly basis. d. by someone other than the PCP. Answer: c. on a monthly basis. ================================================== Question: More patients complain about a. the temperature in the waiting room than about how long they must wait to see the doctor. b. fees and insurance issues than about waiting time. c. copayments and deductibles than any other issue. d. how long they wait to see the doctor than about health care costs. Answer: d. how long they wait to see the doctor than about health care costs. ================================================== Question: Which type of scheduling works well for specialty and consulting practices because it allows the physician time to prepare for each office visit with the knowledge that the day will begin and end on schedule if patients adhere to their assigned times? a. Stream scheduling b. Triage scheduling c. Double booking d. Open hours scheduling Answer: a. Stream scheduling ================================================== Question: A printout showing all of the appointments scheduled for a given day is a(n) a. appointment reference sheet. b. personal organizer. c. auditing sheet. d. appointment reminder card. Answer: a. appointment reference sheet. ================================================== Question: If a patient cancels an appointment and does not set an alternative time, they should a. not be allowed to reschedule. b. be listed on a cancellation sheet for tracking purposes. c. be listed on a cancellation sheet for possible discharge from the practice. d. always be charged for the appointment. Answer: b. be listed on a cancellation sheet for tracking purposes. ================================================== Question: FUO is the abbreviation for a. follow-up in office. b. fever of unknown origin. c. fracture of unknown origin. d. frequent urinary output. Answer: b. fever of unknown origin. ================================================== Question: Appointment reminder cards a. should always be mailed in an envelope. b. can be postcards, letters, or notes. c. are viewed as a bad public relation tool. d. are forbidden by HIPAA. Answer: a. should always be mailed in an envelope. ================================================== Question: The abbreviation "Dx" stands for a. did not keep appointment. b. diagnosis. c. dressing change. d. discontinue. Answer: b. diagnosis. ================================================== Question: In which type of scheduling system are patients told that their appointments are on the hour and each is seen in the order in which they arrive? a. True wave b. Modified wave c. Clustering d. Single booking Answer: a. True wave ================================================== Question: Which type of scheduling works well when the staff knows how to get relevant information from the patient so a real emergency can be handled promptly? a. Stream scheduling b. Triage scheduling c. Double booking d. Fixed interval scheduling Answer: b. Triage scheduling ================================================== Question: All appointment no-shows should a. be disregarded. b. be discussed with the supervisor. c. be documented in the patient's chart. d. result in a refusal to schedule future appointments for the patient. Answer: c. be documented in the patient's chart. ================================================== Question: The national average of primary care visits per hour per physician is a. two. b. four. c. six. d. eight. Answer: c. six. ================================================== Question: PRN stands for a. primary registered nurse. b. pulmonary respiratory nebulizer. c. as soon as possible. d. as necessary Answer: d. as necessary ================================================== Question: The abbreviation "stat" stands for a. immediately. b. emergency. c. statistically. d. on call. Answer: a. immediately. ================================================== Question: The scheduling technique that allows patients to walk in during a specified time frame and be seen in the order they arrive is a. stream scheduling. b. triage scheduling. c. double booking. d. open hours. Answer: d. open hours. ================================================== Question: A hospitalist is a a. nurse practitioner who works in the hospital. b. physician assistant who takes over for the PCP when a patient is hospitalized. c. physician who takes over for the PCP when a patient is hospitalized. d. resident physician. Answer: c. physician who takes over for the PCP when a patient is hospitalized. ================================================== Question: When setting up preoperative appointments and tests for a patient, a. schedule all tests and procedures as close together as possible. b. remember that patients may find too many appointments in one day tiring. c. schedule tests and procedures as far apart as possible. d. only take into consideration the time frame during which the physician wants them done. Answer: b. remember that patients may find too many appointments in one day tiring. ================================================== Question: Patients referred by other physicians should a. be scheduled within a four-week period. b. be scheduled within a two-week period. c. be seen as soon as possible. d. not be given priority over other patients. Answer: c. be seen as soon as possible. ================================================== Question: The correct abbreviation(s) for physical examination is a. PE. b. PX. c. Ph ex. d. A and C only. e. all of the above. Answer: e. all of the above. ================================================== Question: The correct abbreviation for anterior posterior is a. AP. b. A&P. c. AP&L. d. A/P. e. A and B only. f. A, B, and D only. g. all of the above. Answer: a. AP. ================================================== Question: PFT is the abbreviation for a. pulmonary function test. b. premature fetal tones. c. platelet function test. d. perfusion function time. Answer: a. pulmonary function test. ================================================== Question: Which of the following is the best way for the medical assistant to handle a true emergency situation? a. Diagnose the situation and prescribe treatment over the phone. b. Refer the patient to a hospital emergency facility. c. Schedule the patient to come in at the end of the workday when all other patients have been seen. d. Refer the call to someone else. Answer: b. Refer the patient to a hospital emergency facility. ================================================== Question: How should pharmaceutical representatives' visits be handled? a. Do not schedule appointments for reps as they tend to annoy the physician. b. Schedule one day per month for reps. c. Block one or two quiet periods in the middle of the week for reps. d. Make sure to block a great deal of time because they often bring drug samples. Answer: c. Block one or two quiet periods in the middle of the week for reps. ================================================== Question: Which type of scheduling method allows patients to schedule appointments on the same day they call? a. True wave b. Open access c. Clustered appointment d. Modified wave Answer: b. Open access ================================================== Question: An in-office hospital surgery scheduling form is filled out by a. the physician and the patient. b. the physician, scheduler, and patient. c. the patient and billing representative. d. an admitting clerk and the physician. Answer: b. the physician, scheduler, and patient. ==================================================

Characteristics Of An Ideal Gas

Question: 1
Answer: molecules move in rapid and random motion
==================================================
Question: 2
Answer: Kelvin temperature is proportional to molecular speed
==================================================
Question: 3
Answer: molecules feel no attraction nor repulsion
==================================================
Question: 4
Answer: collisions between molecules are elastic
==================================================
Question: 5
Answer: volume of the actual atom is zero
==================================================
Question: 1 Answer: molecules move in rapid and random motion ================================================== Question: 2 Answer: Kelvin temperature is proportional to molecular speed ================================================== Question: 3 Answer: molecules feel no attraction nor repulsion ================================================== Question: 4 Answer: collisions between molecules are elastic ================================================== Question: 5 Answer: volume of the actual atom is zero ==================================================